El espía tiene que encontrar el código, pero no se lo reveles.

Questions & Answers about El espía tiene que encontrar el código, pero no se lo reveles.

Why are se and lo before the verb here?
Because this is a negative command (do not reveal). With negative commands, object pronouns like se and lo must go before the conjugated verb (no se lo reveles). If it were an affirmative command (reveal it), they would attach to the end (revélaselo).
Who does se refer to in no se lo reveles, and why isn't it le?
se refers to 'to him' (el espía). Normally, the indirect object pronoun for 'to him' is le. However, when le comes right before another pronoun starting with 'l' like lo (which means 'it', referring to el código), Spanish changes le to se to make it easier to pronounce. So, instead of no le lo reveles, it becomes no se lo reveles.
Why does the verb reveles end in an 'e'? Isn't revelar an -ar verb?
Yes, revelar is an -ar verb. But for negative commands given to someone you address as , you swap the usual vowel. For -ar verbs, the ending changes from -as to -es. That is why 'you reveal' is revelas, but 'do not reveal' is no reveles.
The word espía ends in 'a'. Why does it use the masculine word El?
espía is a word that can be masculine or feminine depending on the person it refers to, much like dentista. If the spy is a man, it is el espía. If the spy is a woman, it is la espía. Here, El tells us this specific spy is male.
Why is it tiene que encontrar and not just tiene encontrar?
In Spanish, when you want to say that someone 'has to' or 'must' do something, you use the set phrase tener que followed by the infinitive verb. You always need the que in between the two verbs!

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