Breakdown of Cuando termine de cocinar, dejaré el delantal sobre la silla y pondré el salero en el cajón.
Questions & Answers about Cuando termine de cocinar, dejaré el delantal sobre la silla y pondré el salero en el cajón.
Why is termine in the subjunctive?
Because cuando often takes the present subjunctive when it refers to a future event that has not happened yet.
In this sentence, Cuando termine de cocinar... means When I finish cooking..., referring to a future moment. Since the action is still pending, Spanish uses termine rather than the indicative termino.
Compare:
- Cuando termino de cocinar, limpio la cocina. = When I finish cooking, I clean the kitchen.
- This sounds habitual/repeated.
- Cuando termine de cocinar, dejaré... = When I finish cooking, I will leave...
- This refers to a specific future occasion.
Why are dejaré and pondré in the future tense?
They are in the simple future because the speaker is talking about what they will do after finishing cooking.
- dejaré = I will leave
- pondré = I will put
Spanish can sometimes use the present tense for future meaning, but here the future tense makes the sequence very clear:
It sounds natural and explicit: first I finish cooking, then I will do those two things.
Why is it de cocinar and not just cocinar?
Why doesn’t the sentence use the subject pronoun yo?
Because Spanish usually omits subject pronouns when the verb ending already makes the subject clear.
Here:
- termine
- dejaré
- pondré
all clearly refer to yo in context. Adding yo is possible, but it is usually unnecessary unless you want emphasis or contrast.
Why is it el delantal, la silla, el salero, and el cajón with definite articles?
Spanish uses definite articles (el, la, los, las) more often than English does.
In English, you might say:
- leave the apron on the chair
- put the salt shaker in the drawer
Spanish naturally says:
- el delantal
- la silla
- el salero
- el cajón
Even when English might sometimes omit an article in other contexts, Spanish often prefers to include one.
Why is delantal masculine if it ends in -al / why isn’t it la delantal?
Because grammatical gender in Spanish is not based only on the final letter. While many nouns ending in -a are feminine and many ending in -o are masculine, there are many exceptions and other endings.
Delantal is simply a masculine noun, so it takes:
You just have to learn its gender together with the noun.
What is the difference between sobre la silla and en el cajón?
They describe different kinds of location:
Here:
- dejaré el delantal sobre la silla means the apron will be placed on top of the chair
- pondré el salero en el cajón means the salt shaker will be placed inside the drawer
So sobre is used for a surface or position above/on top of something, while en is used for being inside something or simply located in a place.
Why use dejar for the apron but poner for the salt shaker?
Both verbs can sometimes translate as to put in English, but they are used slightly differently.
- dejar often means to leave something somewhere
- poner means to put/place something somewhere
So:
- dejaré el delantal sobre la silla = I’ll leave the apron on the chair
- pondré el salero en el cajón = I’ll put the salt shaker in the drawer
In this sentence, dejar sounds natural for leaving an item resting somewhere, while poner sounds natural for placing something into a specific location.
Why is pondré irregular? Where does the dr come from?
Poner is an irregular verb in the simple future.
Instead of using the full infinitive plus the regular endings in an obvious way, it changes stem:
- poner → pondr-
Then you add the future endings:
- pondré
- pondrás
- pondrá
- pondremos
- pondréis
- pondrán
This is a common pattern with some Spanish verbs:
So pondré just has to be learned as the future form of poner.
Why is there an accent on dejaré and pondré, but not on termine?
The accents are there because of how the words are stressed.
Future forms like dejaré and pondré have stress on the final syllable:
- de-ja-ré
- pon-dré
That final stressed vowel needs a written accent.
But termine has no written accent because it follows normal Spanish stress rules:
- ter-mi-ne
Since the stress pattern is predictable, no accent mark is needed.
Could Spanish also use the present tense instead of the future here?
Yes, sometimes Spanish can use the present tense to talk about the near future:
This can sound more immediate or conversational in some contexts. However, dejaré and pondré are clearer and more standard if you want to express a straightforward future plan.
So both are possible, but the version with the future tense is especially clear for learners.
Is the word order fixed, or could it be changed?
The given word order is very natural, but Spanish allows some flexibility.
Standard order here is:
You could change things for emphasis, but the original is the most neutral and natural version.
For example, you might hear:
- Cuando termine de cocinar, pondré el salero en el cajón y dejaré el delantal sobre la silla.
That changes the order of the two future actions, but not the basic meaning.
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