Breakdown of Es mejor que no usemos el ascensor si está averiado.
Questions & Answers about Es mejor que no usemos el ascensor si está averiado.
Why is usemos used instead of usamos?
Because es mejor que normally triggers the subjunctive.
In this sentence, Es mejor que no usemos el ascensor... means something like It’s better that we not use the lift... / We’d better not use the lift... It expresses a recommendation or judgment, not a simple statement of fact.
- usamos = present indicative: we use / we are using
- usemos = present subjunctive: that we use
So after es mejor que, Spanish uses the subjunctive:
Es mejor que + subjunctive
How do you form usemos?
Usemos is the first person plural present subjunctive of usar.
A simple way to form the present subjunctive is:
- Start with the yo form of the present indicative: uso
- Remove the -o
- Add the subjunctive endings
For -ar verbs, the endings are:
- yo: -e
- tú: -es
- él/ella/usted: -e
- nosotros/nosotras: -emos
- vosotros/vosotras: -éis
- ellos/ellas/ustedes: -en
So:
- yo use
- tú uses
- él/ella use
- nosotros usemos
- vosotros uséis
- ellos usen
Why is there a que after es mejor?
Because the sentence follows the pattern:
es mejor que + clause
That que links the main idea to the subordinate clause:
- Es mejor = It is better
- que no usemos el ascensor = that we don’t use the lift
So que here means that.
Without que, you would normally need a different structure, such as the infinitive:
- Es mejor no usar el ascensor...
Both are possible, but they are built differently.
Could you also say Es mejor no usar el ascensor si está averiado?
Yes, absolutely. That is very natural too.
There are two common ways to say this idea:
The difference is mainly structural:
- es mejor que + subjunctive is a full clause: it’s better that we don’t use...
- es mejor + infinitive is more general: it’s better not to use...
In many situations, both mean almost the same thing. The version with usemos feels a bit more explicitly about us/we, while no usar can sound slightly more general.
Why is no placed before usemos?
Why is it si está averiado and not a subjunctive form after si?
Because after si meaning if, Spanish normally uses the indicative for real or possible conditions.
So:
- si está averiado = if it is broken / if it’s out of order
Spanish does not normally use the present subjunctive after si in this kind of sentence.
Common pattern:
- Si llueve, nos quedamos en casa.
- Si está averiado, no lo usamos.
So está is correct because this is a normal, real condition.
What does averiado mean exactly?
Averiado means broken, out of order, or not working properly, especially for machines, devices, or systems.
So el ascensor está averiado means:
- the lift is broken
- the lift is out of order
It is a very natural word for things like:
- un ascensor averiado
- un coche averiado
- una lavadora averiada
For machines, averiado is often more idiomatic than a literal word like roto.
Why is estar used in está averiado?
Because averiado describes the current condition or state of the lift.
Spanish often uses estar + past participle/adjective for states or conditions:
- está cerrado = it is closed
- está abierto = it is open
- está averiado = it is broken / out of order
Here, the idea is not defining what the lift is by nature, but describing its current state.
Why isn’t the subject nosotros included?
Because Spanish usually omits subject pronouns when the verb already makes the subject clear.
Usemos already tells you the subject is we (nosotros/nosotras), so nosotros is not necessary.
You could say:
But that would usually sound more emphatic, for example if you want to contrast we with someone else.
Most of the time, the version without the pronoun is more natural.
Is ascensor specifically Spanish from Spain?
Can the order of the sentence be changed?
Yes. You can move the si clause to the front:
This means the same thing as:
- Es mejor que no usemos el ascensor si está averiado.
The difference is mainly one of emphasis:
- starting with Si está averiado... highlights the condition first
- starting with Es mejor... highlights the recommendation first
Both are correct and natural.
Why does está have an accent mark?
Because está is a form of the verb estar, and it is written with a written accent on the final a.
Examples:
- está = he/she/it is
- están = they are
This accent is simply part of the correct spelling of the verb form. It also helps distinguish it from other short words that might otherwise look similar.
So in this sentence, si está averiado is the correctly spelled form.
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