Breakdown of Después de la película, pedimos una cerveza para mi hermano y una copa de vino para mi tía.
Questions & Answers about Después de la película, pedimos una cerveza para mi hermano y una copa de vino para mi tía.
Why is it después de la película and not just después la película?
Because después normally needs de before a noun.
- después de la película = after the film
- después de comer = after eating
So de is part of the structure here.
A useful pattern is:
- después de + noun/infinitive
- después de que + clause
Examples:
- Después de la cena... = After dinner...
- Después de estudiar... = After studying...
- Después de que terminó la película... = After the film ended...
Why is there a comma after película?
The comma separates the introductory time phrase from the main clause:
- Después de la película, = introductory phrase
- pedimos una cerveza... = main action
In Spanish, this comma is very natural and common, especially in writing. It is similar to English:
- After the film, we ordered...
It is not always absolutely required in short sentences, but it is standard and helpful.
Why is pedimos used here? Doesn’t pedimos also mean we ask for in the present?
Yes. Pedimos can mean either:
This happens because the nosotros form of pedir is the same in the present and the preterite:
- Present: pedimos
- Preterite: pedimos
So context tells you which one it means. In this sentence, because it describes a completed past event after the movie, it is understood as we ordered or we asked for.
What verb is pedimos from, and is it irregular?
It comes from pedir, meaning to ask for or to order.
Pedir is a stem-changing verb in the present tense:
- pido
- pides
- pide
- pedimos
- pedís (Spain)
- piden
Notice that nosotros and vosotros do not change stem in the present.
In the preterite, pedir has stem changes too, but only in certain forms:
- pedí
- pediste
- pidió
- pedimos
- pedisteis
- pidieron
So pedimos is one of the forms that stays the same both in the present and preterite.
Why does Spanish say pedimos una cerveza? Is that more like we asked for a beer or we ordered a beer?
Why is it una cerveza but una copa de vino?
Because Spanish often treats these drinks differently.
- una cerveza = a beer
- una copa de vino = a glass of wine
With beer, the drink name itself often works as the unit. With wine, Spanish commonly specifies the serving container or portion:
- una copa de vino = a glass of wine
- un vaso de agua = a glass of water
- una taza de té = a cup of tea
You can sometimes hear un vino in some contexts, but una copa de vino is very natural and specific.
Why is it copa and not vaso?
Because copa usually means a stemmed glass, the kind typically used for wine.
- copa = wine glass / cocktail glass / goblet-type glass
- vaso = ordinary drinking glass or tumbler
So una copa de vino sounds natural because wine is usually served in a copa, not a vaso.
Compare:
- un vaso de agua = a glass of water
- una copa de vino = a glass of wine
Why is para used in para mi hermano and para mi tía?
Here para means for in the sense of intended for or for the benefit of someone.
- una cerveza para mi hermano = a beer for my brother
- una copa de vino para mi tía = a glass of wine for my aunt
It tells us who each drink was for.
This is very natural when you are ordering something on behalf of someone else.
Why isn’t there a personal a before mi hermano and mi tía?
Because mi hermano and mi tía are not direct objects of the verb here.
The personal a is used before a specific human direct object:
- Veo a mi hermano. = I see my brother.
But in this sentence, mi hermano and mi tía come after para, so they are objects of the preposition para, not direct objects of pedimos.
That is why you say:
- para mi hermano
- para mi tía
not para a mi hermano
Why is it mi hermano and mi tía without el or la?
Because Spanish possessive adjectives like mi, tu, su, nuestro usually go directly before the noun, without an article.
So you say:
- mi hermano = my brother
- mi tía = my aunt
Not:
- el mi hermano
- la mi tía
This is the normal structure in modern Spanish.
Why is mi written without an accent here? I thought mí had an accent.
Good question. There are two different words:
- mi = my → possessive adjective, no accent
- mí = me after a preposition, with accent
In this sentence, mi means my:
- mi hermano = my brother
- mi tía = my aunt
Compare:
- Es para mí. = It’s for me.
- Es para mi hermano. = It’s for my brother.
So the accent depends on the meaning and grammar.
Could the sentence also use indirect object pronouns, like le or les?
Yes, Spanish could also express the idea with indirect object pronouns, but the structure would be different.
However, that version can sound a bit ambiguous, because pedir algo a alguien often means to ask someone for something.
So:
- Le pedimos una cerveza a mi hermano could suggest we asked my brother for a beer, depending on context.
That is why para mi hermano is especially clear here: it clearly means the beer was intended for him.
Is the word order important? Could the sentence start with Pedimos... instead?
Why is y only used once, even though there are two complete drink phrases?
Could Spanish leave out the second para?
Does película always mean film/movie, or could it mean something else?
In normal everyday use, película means film or movie.
Examples:
It does not usually mean the cinema building itself. For that, Spanish uses cine:
So:
- después de la película = after the film/movie
- después del cine = after the trip to the cinema / after the movies
Those are related, but not exactly the same.
In Spain, is cerveza and vino a natural combination in one order like this?
Yes, completely natural. There is nothing grammatically unusual about ordering different drinks for different people in the same sentence.
The sentence is a good example of how Spanish naturally lists multiple items and who they are for:
This kind of structure is very common in restaurants, bars, and cafés.
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