Breakdown of La dentista me dijo que tomara una pastilla si la muela me seguía doliendo.
Questions & Answers about La dentista me dijo que tomara una pastilla si la muela me seguía doliendo.
Why is it la dentista?
Why is there a me in me dijo?
Why does Spanish use dijo que tomara instead of something like told me to take with an infinitive?
Why is it tomara and not tomó, tomé, or tomaría?
Because tomara is the imperfect subjunctive, and it is used here after dijo que to report what someone told or advised the speaker to do.
The idea is not that the action happened already, but that it was something the dentist wanted the speaker to do later, if necessary.
So me dijo que tomara una pastilla means she told me to take a pill.
Why is the subjunctive used after dijo que here?
Because this is not just reporting information; it is reporting advice, instruction, or a command.
Compare:
Me dijo que estaba cansada = She told me she was tired
- Here you would use the indicative, because it is reported information.
Me dijo que tomara una pastilla = She told me to take a pill
- Here you use the subjunctive, because it is reported advice/instruction.
So the subjunctive appears because the dentist was telling the speaker what to do.
Could tomase be used instead of tomara?
Yes. Tomara and tomase are both valid imperfect subjunctive forms.
- que tomara
- que tomase
In modern Spanish, -ra forms are more common in everyday speech, but both are correct.
Why is it si la muela me seguía doliendo and not si la muela me siguiera doliendo?
Because after si in a real or open condition, Spanish normally uses the indicative, not the subjunctive.
Here the meaning is basically:
- if my tooth kept hurting
That is a possible real situation from the past point of view, so seguía (imperfect indicative) is correct.
You would use the subjunctive after si in other kinds of unreal or unlikely conditions, for example:
But in your sentence, the condition is simply the circumstance under which the speaker should take the pill.
Why is it seguía doliendo instead of just dolía?
Why is seguía in the imperfect?
Why is there another me in la muela me seguía doliendo?
Because doler works like gustar in its structure.
Spanish expresses this as:
- the tooth hurts me
So:
- la muela = the thing causing pain
- me = the person affected
- dolía / seguía doliendo = was hurting / kept hurting
That is why Spanish says:
- La muela me dolía
- literally: The tooth was hurting me
Even though in English we usually say my tooth hurt.
Why is it la muela me dolía rather than yo dolía la muela?
Because doler does not usually work like a normal transitive verb such as romper or comer.
The painful thing is the grammatical subject:
- La muela me dolía = The tooth hurt me
Not:
- Yo dolía la muela ❌
This is the same pattern as:
- Me gusta el café = Coffee pleases me / I like coffee
- Me duele la cabeza = My head hurts / My head hurts me
What is the difference between muela and diente?
Why is it una pastilla and not la pastilla?
Does pastilla mean pill or tablet?
Can the word order change in the second half of the sentence?
Is que tomara una pastilla a direct command?
Not exactly. It is a reported command or instruction.
A direct command from the dentist might be:
But once the speaker reports it later, it becomes:
- La dentista me dijo que tomara una pastilla si la muela me seguía doliendo.
So the sentence is not giving the command directly; it is telling us what the dentist said.
Why is everything in the past if the pill would be taken later?
Because the whole sentence is being told from a past point of view.
The main verb is past:
- me dijo = she told me
After that, Spanish shifts the following verbs to match that past frame:
So even though the taking of the pill was later than the dentist’s words, it is still future relative to a past moment, which is why Spanish uses these past-form structures.
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