Me molestaba que mi esposo los malcriara y nunca los castigara.

Questions & Answers about Me molestaba que mi esposo los malcriara y nunca los castigara.

Why are the verbs malcriara and castigara in the imperfect subjunctive?
The main verb, molestaba, expresses an emotion in the past ("it bothered me"). When a past-tense verb expresses emotion, doubt, or influence, the verb in the following que clause must be in the imperfect subjunctive.
Why is the main verb molestaba in the imperfect tense rather than the preterite?
The imperfect tense is used here because it describes an ongoing or habitual feeling in the past. It wasn't just a sudden, one-time event; it continually bothered the speaker that the husband was spoiling the children.
Is it okay to say malcriase and castigase instead?
Yes! The imperfect subjunctive has two sets of valid endings: the -ra endings (like malcriara) and the -se endings (like malcriase). They mean exactly the same thing, though the -ra forms are much more common in Latin American Spanish.
Why is "los" repeated before both verbs?
los is the direct object pronoun meaning "them" (likely referring to children). In Spanish, when you have multiple conjugated verbs joined by y (and), you generally need to repeat the object pronoun before each verb. You can't just say los malcriara y nunca castigara.
Does castigar need a spelling change in the imperfect subjunctive?
No. In the present subjunctive, you have to change the g to gu to keep the hard "g" sound (like in castigue). But because the imperfect subjunctive ending starts with an a (castigara), the g naturally keeps its hard sound without any spelling changes.

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