Breakdown of Enciende los faros, que ya casi es de noche.
Questions & Answers about Enciende los faros, que ya casi es de noche.
What form is enciende?
It is the affirmative tú command of encender.
So this is the form you use when telling one person you know well to turn something on:
- encender = to turn on, light, switch on
- tú enciendes = you turn on
- enciende = turn on
It also shows the normal stem change e → ie of encender.
A useful contrast:
- Enciende los faros = Turn on the headlights
- No enciendas los faros = Don’t turn on the headlights
Why is there no tú in the sentence?
Because Spanish usually leaves subject pronouns out when they are already clear from the verb form.
In enciende, the command already tells you the speaker is addressing tú, so tú is unnecessary.
You could say Tú enciende los faros, but that would sound more emphatic, as if you were contrasting that person with someone else.
Does faro really mean headlight? I thought it meant lighthouse.
Why does the sentence use los faros instead of las luces?
What does que mean here?
Here que introduces the reason or explanation for the command.
So que ya casi es de noche means something like:
- because it’s almost night
- since it’s getting dark
- it’s nearly nighttime now
This is a very common spoken Spanish pattern, especially after commands:
- Ven, que hace frío = Come on, it’s cold
- Date prisa, que llegamos tarde = Hurry up, we’re arriving late
So this que is not that or which. It is explanatory.
Why is there a comma before que?
What do ya and casi add to the sentence?
They add nuance.
- casi = almost
- ya = already, by now, at this point
Together, ya casi gives the idea that the situation has progressed and it is now very close to nightfall.
So it is not just it’s almost night. It is more like:
- it’s already almost night
- it’s getting pretty late now
- by now it’s nearly nighttime
If you removed ya, the sentence would still be correct, but it would lose some of that sense of urgency or progression.
Why is it es de noche and not está de noche?
Because es de noche is the normal fixed expression.
In Spanish, you commonly say:
- Es de día = It’s daytime
- Es de noche = It’s nighttime / It’s night
Using estar here is not the standard choice. If you want to use estar, you would normally say something slightly different, for example:
- Está oscuro = It’s dark
That is close in meaning, but not exactly the same expression.
Why does Spanish say de noche here?
Because de noche is part of an idiomatic time expression.
In this sentence:
- es de noche = it is nighttime
Spanish often uses de in expressions of this type:
- de día = by day / in daytime
- de noche = by night / at night / nighttime
So learners should treat es de noche as a set expression, rather than trying to translate each word literally.
Would this sound rude in Spanish, since it uses a command?
Not necessarily.
Spanish uses the imperative more naturally than English in many everyday situations. In a practical context like driving, Enciende los faros sounds normal.
Also, adding que ya casi es de noche makes it sound more like a sensible instruction with a reason, not a harsh order.
Depending on tone of voice, it can sound:
- neutral
- practical
- caring
- urgent
So the grammar itself is not rude.
How would this change if I were speaking formally or to more than one person?
The rest of the sentence stays the same, but the command changes.
Encienda los faros, que ya casi es de noche.
Formal singular, speaking to ustedEncended los faros, que ya casi es de noche.
Informal plural in Spain, speaking to vosotrosEnciendan los faros, que ya casi es de noche.
Formal plural in Spain, or general plural in most of Latin America
So enciende specifically shows that the original sentence is addressed to one person informally.
Is there another natural way to say this in Spain?
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