Breakdown of Mi madre dice que la piña con yogur está tan buena como las cerezas con miel.
Questions & Answers about Mi madre dice que la piña con yogur está tan buena como las cerezas con miel.
Why is it mi madre and not la mi madre?
In normal Spanish, possessives like mi, tu, su, nuestro usually replace the article.
So you say:
- mi madre = my mother
- tu hermano = your brother
- su casa = his/her/their house
Using la mi madre would sound wrong in standard modern Spanish.
What does que do after dice?
Why is it está and not es?
Spanish often uses estar for how food tastes or seems at a particular moment.
- Está buena = it tastes good / it is delicious
- Es buena = it is good in a more general sense, such as good quality, healthy, or beneficial
So here está is the natural choice because your mother is commenting on the taste of the food.
Why is it buena and not bien?
Why is it buena and not bueno?
Why is buena singular if las cerezas is plural?
Because buena agrees with the first thing being described: la piña con yogur.
The structure is:
So the adjective matches la piña, not las cerezas.
You can think of the full meaning as:
- La piña con yogur está tan buena como las cerezas con miel están buenas
But in Spanish, the second están buenas is omitted because it is understood.
How does tan ... como work?
Tan ... como means as ... as.
So:
- tan buena como = as good/tasty as
This is the normal structure for comparisons of equality with adjectives and adverbs:
- tan alto como = as tall as
- tan rápido como = as fast as
- tan buena como = as good as
Why is there no article in con yogur and con miel?
Because Spanish often leaves out the article after con when talking about ingredients or substances in a general way.
So:
- piña con yogur
- cerezas con miel
means pineapple with yogurt, cherries with honey.
If you were talking about a specific yogurt or a specific honey, the article could appear:
- con el yogur griego que compré
- con la miel de esa tienda
Does la piña con yogur mean a combination, like a dish, rather than two separate things?
Why is las cerezas plural, but la piña singular?
That is just the natural way these foods are often referred to.
- la piña can refer to pineapple as a fruit or food item in the singular
- las cerezas is often plural because cherries are usually thought of as several individual fruits
So this is not a special grammar rule in the sentence; it is just natural usage.
Is yogur the normal word in Spain? I often see yogurt in English.
Yes. Yogur is a standard Spanish form and is very common in Spain.
You may also see yogurt sometimes, especially on packaging or in international contexts, but yogur is fully normal Spanish.
Can estar bueno/a mean something different with people?
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