Breakdown of El farmacéutico me dijo que tomara una pastilla si la garganta me seguía doliendo.
Questions & Answers about El farmacéutico me dijo que tomara una pastilla si la garganta me seguía doliendo.
What exactly is tomara here? Is it a past tense meaning I took?
No. Tomara here is the imperfect subjunctive of tomar.
In this sentence, it does not mean I took. It is being used after me dijo que... to report what someone told or recommended.
So:
- me dijo que tomara = he told me to take
- not he told me that I took
This is a very common Spanish pattern after a past verb of saying, ordering, recommending, etc.
Why does Spanish say me dijo que tomara instead of using an infinitive like English does in told me to take?
Because Spanish normally uses this structure:
- decirle a alguien que + subjunctive
So:
- El farmacéutico me dijo que tomara una pastilla
is the normal way to say The pharmacist told me to take a pill.
English uses to + verb, but Spanish usually does que + finite verb here. So me dijo tomar would not be the standard choice.
A useful comparison:
- Direct speech: Toma una pastilla...
- Reported speech: Me dijo que tomara una pastilla...
Could I also say tomase instead of tomara?
Yes. Tomara and tomase are both imperfect subjunctive forms.
So both are correct:
- me dijo que tomara
- me dijo que tomase
In Spain, both are understood and normal, though the -ra form is often more common in everyday speech.
Why is there no subjunctive after si? Why is it si la garganta me seguía doliendo?
Because si usually takes the indicative when the condition is presented as a real or open possibility.
Here the idea is:
- if my throat kept hurting
That is a normal possible condition, so Spanish uses the indicative:
- si ... seguía doliendo
You use subjunctive after si in more hypothetical or contrary-to-fact patterns, for example:
- Si me siguiera doliendo, tomaría una pastilla.
= If it were still hurting, I would take a pill.
So in your sentence, seguía is correct.
Why does it say seguía doliendo instead of just dolía?
Because seguir + gerund means to keep / continue doing something.
So:
- dolía = it hurt / it was hurting
- seguía doliendo = it kept hurting / it was still hurting
The pharmacist is not just referring to pain in general, but to pain that continues.
Why is there me twice in the sentence?
Because the two me forms do different jobs:
- me dijo = he told me
- me seguía doliendo = it kept hurting me
The first me goes with decir and means to me.
The second me goes with doler. The verb doler works like gustar:
- the thing that hurts is the grammatical subject
- the person affected is shown with an indirect object pronoun
So la garganta me seguía doliendo is literally something like:
- the throat kept hurting to me
That sounds odd in English, but it is normal in Spanish.
Why is it la garganta and not mi garganta?
Because Spanish often uses the definite article with body parts when it is already clear whose body part is being talked about.
Here, me already tells you whose throat it is, so la garganta is natural:
- la garganta me seguía doliendo
Spanish often prefers this kind of structure:
- me duele la cabeza
- me lavé las manos
- me duele la garganta
You could say mi garganta, but that would usually add emphasis, contrast, or a slightly different tone.
Why is dijo in the preterite and not decía?
Because dijo presents the pharmacist’s statement as one completed act in the past.
- dijo = he said / he told
- decía = he was saying / he used to say
In this sentence, the pharmacist told the person something at a particular moment, so dijo fits naturally.
If you used decía, it would sound more like background information, a repeated habit, or an ongoing situation.
Is si me seguía doliendo la garganta also correct?
Yes. That word order is also correct, and many speakers would find it very natural.
Both are possible:
- si la garganta me seguía doliendo
- si me seguía doliendo la garganta
With verbs like doler, the subject often comes after the verb, but it does not have to.
The version with la garganta earlier may give a little more prominence to the throat. The version with the subject later can sound slightly more neutral.
Could I also say me dijo que me tomara una pastilla?
Yes. That is also very natural, especially in Spain.
Both are possible:
- tomar una pastilla
- tomarse una pastilla
With medicine, tomarse is very common and often feels a bit more idiomatic or personal, like take for oneself / ingest.
So these are both fine:
- El farmacéutico me dijo que tomara una pastilla
- El farmacéutico me dijo que me tomara una pastilla
Notice that this gives you two me forms next to each other in the sentence, but that is completely normal:
- first me = told me
- second me = part of tomarse
Does farmacéutico specifically mean pharmacist in Spain?
Yes. In Spain, farmacéutico is the standard word for a male pharmacist.
- el farmacéutico = male pharmacist
- la farmacéutica = female pharmacist
So the sentence is clearly referring to a man. If it were a woman, it would be:
- La farmacéutica me dijo que tomara una pastilla...
What is the basic grammar pattern of the whole sentence?
A helpful way to see it is:
- El farmacéutico = subject
- me dijo = main verb + indirect object
- que tomara una pastilla = reported instruction
- si la garganta me seguía doliendo = condition
So the core pattern is:
- Someone told me that I should do X if Y happened
In Spanish, that becomes:
- [subject] + me dijo + que + imperfect subjunctive + si + imperfect indicative
That is why the sentence combines:
- tomara after dijo que
- seguía doliendo after si
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