No toques ese vaso frágil, se puede romper con un solo movimiento.

Questions & Answers about No toques ese vaso frágil, se puede romper con un solo movimiento.

Why is toques used instead of tocas in No toques ese vaso frágil?
Negative informal (tú) commands in Spanish use the present subjunctive, not the indicative. For tocar, the yo form is toco; drop the –o and add the opposite ending –es, giving toques. Hence No toques, not No tocas.
Why is puede in se puede romper in the indicative mood rather than the subjunctive?
The second clause states a factual possibility: it can break. Spanish uses the indicative for real or certain events. The subjunctive appears when there is doubt, wish, or non-reality. Since we’re declaring a fact about the glass, we use puede.
What is the function of se in se puede romper?
This se creates an impersonal/passive construction. Se puede romper literally means one can break it or it can break, without naming who does it. It’s similar to the English passive voice.
Why isn’t there an object pronoun like lo in se puede romper?
In the impersonal/passive se structure, the thing acted upon (the glass) serves as the subject. Adding lo would duplicate that reference, so it’s omitted: se puede romper, not se lo puede romper.
Why is ese used instead of este or aquel in ese vaso frágil?

Spanish has three demonstratives:
este for objects near the speaker
ese for objects near the listener or at a moderate distance
aquel for objects far from both
Using ese indicates the glass is closer to the person you’re addressing.

Why is the adjective frágil placed after vaso instead of before?
In Spanish, descriptive adjectives normally follow the noun for a neutral meaning: vaso frágil. Placing the adjective before (frágil vaso) can sound poetic or emphasize fragility.
What’s the difference between con un solo movimiento and en un solo movimiento?

Both mean “with/in a single movement,” but:
con emphasizes the means or tool (“with one movement”)
en emphasizes accomplishing something within that one motion (“in one movement”)
In everyday speech they’re interchangeable here.

Why isn’t there an accent on solo in un solo movimiento?
The Real Academia Española abolished the accent on solo (meaning “only”) because context usually prevents confusion. You no longer need sólo even when it means “only.”
Why does frágil carry an accent on the a?
Frágil is a llana (stress on the next-to-last syllable) ending in a consonant other than n or s, so it requires a written accent to mark the stressed syllable: FRÁ-gil.
Why is there a comma between the two main clauses instead of a semicolon?
In everyday Spanish it’s common to link closely related independent clauses with a comma for a natural pause, even though a semicolon might be more formal. The comma here ties the warning and its explanation smoothly together.
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How does verb conjugation work in Spanish?
Spanish verbs change form based on the subject, tense, and mood. Regular verbs follow predictable patterns depending on whether they end in ‑ar, ‑er, or ‑ir. For example, "hablar" (to speak) becomes "hablo" (I speak), "hablas" (you speak), and "habla" (he/she speaks) in the present tense.

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