Breakdown of Il se peut que nous mangions de la soupe aux pommes de terre ce soir, à moins que Marie préfère les épinards avec du riz.
Questions & Answers about Il se peut que nous mangions de la soupe aux pommes de terre ce soir, à moins que Marie préfère les épinards avec du riz.
Why does the sentence begin with Il se peut que?
Il se peut que is a fixed impersonal expression meaning it may be that or it is possible that.
A few useful points:
- Il here does not refer to a person or thing. It is just an impersonal it, like in it is raining.
- se peut comes from se pouvoir, an old-style expression that survives mainly in this phrase.
- The whole chunk Il se peut que... introduces uncertainty or possibility.
So learners should usually treat Il se peut que as one set expression.
Why is there a que after Il se peut?
Because que introduces the next clause: que nous mangions...
French often uses que after expressions that introduce another idea, especially after:
- feelings
- doubt
- possibility
- necessity
- judgment
Here, Il se peut que is followed by a whole clause, so que is required.
Structure:
- Il se peut que
- clause
So:
- Il se peut que nous mangions...
- literally: It may be that we eat...
Why is mangions used instead of mangeons?
Because Il se peut que requires the subjunctive, and mangions is the present subjunctive form of manger for nous.
Compare:
- Indicative present: nous mangeons
- Present subjunctive: que nous mangions
This is one of the most important things to notice in the sentence:
Also, the spelling changes naturally:
- mangeons has eons
- mangions has ions
The g still keeps the soft sound because it comes before i in -ions.
How do I know mangions is subjunctive here and not something else?
You know from the grammar trigger.
After Il se peut que, French normally uses the subjunctive, so mangions must be understood as subjunctive here.
It is true that nous mangions is also the imperfect form of manger, and the spelling is identical. But in this sentence, the context makes the meaning clear:
- Il se peut que calls for the subjunctive
- ce soir points to a present/future situation, not a past one
So here it means something like:
- we may eat not
- we were eating
If the sentence is about tonight, why doesn’t French use a future tense?
Because after expressions like Il se peut que, French often uses the present subjunctive even when the action is in the future.
The time is shown by the context:
- ce soir = tonight
So French does not need a future form here. The idea is:
- It may be that we eat potato soup tonight
This is very normal in French:
- present subjunctive after a trigger
- future meaning supplied by context
What exactly does à moins que do in the sentence?
It introduces an exception:
- maybe we will eat potato soup tonight
- unless Marie prefers spinach with rice
It is a very common conjunction, and it is important because it also normally requires the subjunctive in the clause that follows.
So the pattern is:
- à moins que
- subjunctive
That is why the sentence has:
- à moins que Marie préfère...
Why is it préfère after à moins que? Is that subjunctive too?
Yes. After à moins que, French normally uses the subjunctive, and préfère here is subjunctive.
What makes this confusing is that for many verbs, some subjunctive forms look exactly like the present indicative forms.
For préférer:
- indicative: Marie préfère
- subjunctive: que Marie préfère
So the form looks the same, but the grammar is different. The conjunction à moins que tells you that this is subjunctive.
I’ve seen à moins que... ne... before. Why is there no ne here?
Good question. In more formal or traditional French, you often see:
This ne is called explétif ne. It does not make the sentence negative.
So:
- à moins que Marie préfère... and
- à moins que Marie ne préfère...
mean the same thing here.
In modern everyday French, especially in speech and less formal writing, the ne is often omitted.
Why does the sentence say de la soupe, but les épinards and du riz?
These articles reflect how French treats each noun.
- de la soupe: partitive article, meaning some soup
- du riz: partitive article, meaning some rice
- les épinards: definite article, literally the spinach
Why les épinards?
In French, épinards is very often used in the plural when talking about the dish or ingredient in a general way. So les épinards is the normal form in many contexts.
So the sentence is not inconsistent; it is just following normal French usage with food nouns.
Why is it soupe aux pommes de terre instead of soupe de pommes de terre?
Why is pommes de terre plural, and what does it literally mean?
Pommes de terre is the normal French word for potatoes.
Literally, it means apples of the earth or earth apples, but learners should treat it as a fixed expression meaning potatoes.
A few things to notice:
In the sentence, it is plural because the soup is made with potatoes in general, not just one potato.
Why is ce soir at the end of the clause?
Could the sentence use on instead of nous?
Yes, in everyday spoken French, many speakers would naturally say on instead of nous:
That sounds more conversational.
The version with nous is still perfectly correct and common, especially in writing or in slightly more careful speech. So this sentence is natural, just a bit more standard in tone than very casual spoken French.
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