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Je venais de voir un lapin invisible !

Je venais de voir un lapin invisible !
I had just seen an invisible rabbit!
From Lesson 211:Past recent actions (venir de)·French

Questions & Answers about Je venais de voir un lapin invisible !

How does venais de voir translate to "had just seen"?
The phrase venir de + an infinitive verb is a special structure meaning to have "just" done something. If you use the present tense (je viens de voir), it means "I have just seen." By putting venir into the Imparfait tense (je venais), you shift the timeline into the past, changing the meaning to "I had just seen."
Since the English translation says "seen", why isn't voir conjugated into a past participle like vu?
The French expression venir de strictly requires an infinitive verb (like voir) to follow it. The time frame ("had just") is handled completely by conjugating venir in the Imparfait, so the main action verb must always stay in the infinitive.
Why is invisible placed after lapin?
Most French adjectives go after the noun, unlike in English. Only a small group of common adjectives describing Beauty, Age, Goodness, and Size (often called the BAGS rule) go before the noun. Since invisible doesn't fit into those categories, it follows the standard rule and goes after lapin.
Since lapin is masculine, why does invisible end in an "e"?
The base (masculine) form of invisible naturally ends in an "e". When a French adjective already ends in an unaccented "e" in its masculine form, its spelling doesn't change for feminine nouns. It stays exactly the same for both!

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