به جز ژل، آرایشگر از هیچ‌چیز استفاده نکرده است، در حالی که موی من صاف است.

Questions & Answers about به جز ژل، آرایشگر از هیچ‌چیز استفاده نکرده است، در حالی که موی من صاف است.

How does dar hâli ke work here, and why does it use a regular present tense verb?
dar hâli ke translates to 'whereas' or 'while' to show a contrast between two statements. Unlike some other conjunctions in Farsi that force the next verb into the subjunctive mood, dar hâli ke takes normal indicative tenses. Here, the verb ast (is) is just in the simple present tense because it states a simple fact about your hair.
Why is there an az before hich-chiz (nothing)?
The verb for 'to use' in Farsi is the compound verb estefâde kardan. This verb requires the preposition az (from). In Farsi, you don't just 'use something', you 'use from something'. That is why it sits right before the object as az hich-chiz estefâde nakarde ast.
If hich-chiz means 'nothing', why is the verb nakarde ast (has not used) also negative?
Farsi requires double negatives! Whenever you use a negative pronoun like hich-chiz (nothing) or hich-kas (nobody), the verb must also be made negative. A literal translation would be 'he has not used nothing', which sounds wrong in English but is completely grammatically correct in Farsi.
What tense is estefâde nakarde ast?
This is the present perfect tense, meaning 'has not used'. It is built using the past stem of the verb plus an 'e' to make the past participle (karde), followed by the present tense of 'to be' (ast). The negative prefix na- always attaches to the verbal part of the compound, giving us nakarde ast.
Why do we say muy-e man instead of just mu-e man?
The word for hair is mu, which ends in a long vowel. When you connect it to man (I/me) using the ezafe grammatical link (the '-e' sound that means 'of'), Farsi naturally inserts a 'y' sound to smoothly bridge the two vowels together.

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