Si la tubería está rota, llamo a una fontanera hoy mismo.

If the pipe is broken, I’ll call a plumber today.

Breakdown of Si la tubería está rota, llamo a una fontanera hoy mismo.

• yo: I
• una: a
• estar: to be
• a: to
• .: period
• si: if
• ,: comma
• llamar: to call
• la tubería: the pipe
• roto: broken
• el fontanero: the plumber
• hoy mismo: today (right away)

Questions & Answers about Si la tubería está rota, llamo a una fontanera hoy mismo.

Why are both verbs in the present tense (está, llamo) instead of using a future like llamaré?

Spanish often uses the present indicative in both parts of a real/likely condition to talk about what you do (or will do immediately) when the condition happens. So Si la tubería está rota, llamo... can naturally mean If it’s broken, I’ll call...
Using the present here can sound like a planned response or a habitual rule: If X happens, I do Y.

Could I say Si la tubería está rota, llamaré a una fontanera hoy mismo? Is that more correct?

Yes, it’s correct. Llamaré (future) makes the “I will” more explicit and can sound a bit more deliberate or formal.

• ...llamo... = immediate reaction / “that’s what I do”
• ...llamaré... = clear future commitment

When would I use llamaría instead of llamo?

Llamaría is conditional and typically goes with a more hypothetical or less likely condition, often using imperfect subjunctive in the si clause:

• Si la tubería estuviera rota, llamaría a una fontanera. = If the pipe were broken, I’d call a plumber.
  That structure suggests uncertainty, imagination, or distance from reality.

Do I ever use the subjunctive after si?

Not in the “if” clause for real conditions like this. For likely/real situations you use indicative: si está.
You use imperfect subjunctive after si for hypothetical/unreal situations: si estuviera, si fuera, etc.

Why is it está rota (with estar) and not es rota (with ser)?

Because roto/rota describes a condition/state (the result of damage), and Spanish normally uses estar for states and results: está roto.
Ser is used more for identity/essential characteristics. Saying es rota would sound wrong in standard Spanish.

Why is it rota and not roto?

Adjectives agree in gender and number with the noun they describe. La tubería is feminine singular, so the adjective is feminine singular: rota.

What’s the role of la in la tubería? Could I drop it?

With a specific thing in context, Spanish usually uses the definite article: la tubería = the pipe (the one we’re talking about).
If you mean “any pipe / a pipe (in general),” you might use una: Si una tubería está rota...
Dropping the article (Si tubería está rota) is not normal Spanish.

Why is it llamo a una fontanera with a?

Because llamar meaning “to call (someone)” is used with a: llamar a alguien.
Also, since the person is a direct object and is a person, Spanish uses the personal a: a una fontanera.

Why una fontanera—is that specifically a female plumber? What if I don’t want to specify?

Yes, fontanera is feminine: it implies the plumber is a woman. The masculine form is fontanero.
In Spain, people often use the masculine by default when they don’t know the person’s gender: llamo a un fontanero. If you know (or want) the plumber to be a woman, una fontanera is perfect.

What does hoy mismo add compared to just hoy?

Hoy mismo adds emphasis: today for sure / today, no later than today / today as soon as possible.
It’s stronger than hoy.
Related: ahora mismo is even more immediate: right now.

Is the comma necessary after rota?

It’s very common (and usually recommended) to use a comma when the si clause comes first: Si..., ...
If the main clause comes first, the comma is usually omitted: Llamo a una fontanera hoy mismo si la tubería está rota.

Is there a difference between si and sí?

Yes:

• si (no accent) = if
• sí (accent) = yes or himself/herself/itself in some contexts (as a pronoun after prepositions)