La bufanda me tapa los ojos cuando hace viento y casi no veo nada.

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Questions & Answers about La bufanda me tapa los ojos cuando hace viento y casi no veo nada.

Why does the sentence say “La bufanda me tapa los ojos” instead of “La bufanda tapa mis ojos”?

Both are grammatically possible, but “La bufanda me tapa los ojos” is much more natural in Spanish.

  • “La bufanda” = the scarf (subject)
  • “me” = to me / on me (indirect object pronoun)
  • “tapa los ojos” = covers the eyes

Literally: “The scarf covers the eyes on me” → idiomatically: “The scarf covers my eyes.”

Spanish often uses a pronoun (me, te, le…) + definite article + body part, instead of a possessive (mi, tu, su) with body parts when it’s obvious whose body it is.

So “La bufanda me tapa los ojos” is more idiomatic than “La bufanda tapa mis ojos”, which sounds a bit more literal or less natural in everyday speech.

Why is it “los ojos” and not “mis ojos”?

With body parts, Spanish normally uses the definite article (el, la, los, las) instead of a possessive adjective, when the owner is clear from context (often shown by a pronoun):

  • Me duele la cabeza. = My head hurts.
  • Te lavaste las manos. = You washed your hands.

In the sentence:

  • me tapa los ojos = literally, “covers the eyes on me” → covers my eyes.

Using “mis ojos” isn’t wrong grammatically, but “me tapa los ojos” is the regular, natural pattern.

What exactly is the function of “me” in “me tapa los ojos”? Is it reflexive?

Here, “me” is an indirect object pronoun, not really a classic reflexive.

  • Subject: la bufanda (the scarf)
  • Verb: tapa (covers)
  • Direct object: los ojos (the eyes)
  • Indirect object: me (to me / on me)

So the structure is: “The scarf covers the eyes (on) me.”

Spanish often uses this pattern with body parts:

  • El humo me irrita los ojos. = The smoke irritates my eyes.
  • El sol me da en la cara. = The sun hits me in the face.

So “me” marks who is affected.

Could you translate “me tapa” literally?

Very literally, “me tapa” is “covers me” or “covers (something) on me.”

But in this exact sentence, it works together with “los ojos”:

  • me tapa los ojos = “covers my eyes” / “is covering my eyes.”

The verb “tapar” here means to cover / block / obstruct (vision, sound, etc.), not just to put something on top.

What’s the difference between “tapar” and “cubrir” in this context? Could I say “La bufanda me cubre los ojos”?

You can say “La bufanda me cubre los ojos” and it’s correct, but there is a nuance:

  • tapar: to cover in a way that blocks something (vision, sound, opening…).
    • Tapar los ojos / los oídos / la boca / una botella.
  • cubrir: to cover more neutrally, like putting something over something else, not necessarily blocking a function.
    • Cubrir la mesa con un mantel.

Since the idea is that you can’t see, “tapar” (to block) is the more natural verb.

Why is it “cuando hace viento” and not something like “cuando hay viento” or “cuando está ventoso”?

Spanish often uses “hacer” to talk about weather:

  • Hace frío. = It’s cold.
  • Hace calor. = It’s hot.
  • Hace viento. = It’s windy.

So “cuando hace viento” literally looks like “when it makes wind” but means “when it’s windy.”

Other options:

  • cuando hay viento = when there is wind → also correct, a bit more literal.
  • cuando hace mucho viento = when it’s very windy.
  • está ventoso exists but is quite uncommon and sounds more formal or technical; “hace viento” is the everyday choice.
Is “cuando” here a question word? Why no accent (cuándo)?

No. Here “cuando” is a conjunction meaning “when” (introducing a time clause), so it does not take an accent:

  • Te llamo cuando llegue. = I’ll call you when I arrive.
  • La bufanda me tapa los ojos cuando hace viento. = The scarf covers my eyes when it’s windy.

With an accent (cuándo), it’s an interrogative or exclamative word:

  • ¿Cuándo hace viento aquí? = When is it windy here?
  • ¡Cuándo hará buen tiempo! = When will the weather finally be nice!
Why do we say “hace viento” using “hace” in the third person singular? Where’s the subject?

In Spanish weather expressions like “hace frío / hace viento / llueve / nieva”, there is no real subject in the sense of a person or thing. They are impersonal expressions.

  • Hace viento.It’s windy.
    There is no concrete “it,” just like in English “it’s raining” (the it doesn’t refer to anything real).

So “hace” here is just the set form used for weather, not an action with a clear subject.

Why does the sentence use “casi no veo nada” with two negatives: “no” and “nada”? Isn’t that a double negative?

Spanish allows and requires this kind of “double negative”; it’s normal and correct:

  • No veo nada. = I don’t see anything.
  • No tengo ningún problema. = I don’t have any problem.

So:

  • casi no veo nada
    • casi = almost
    • no veo nada = I don’t see anything

Together: “I can hardly see anything” / “I almost don’t see anything.”

In Spanish, “no” goes before the verb, and “nada” reinforces the negation. This is standard grammar, not a mistake.

What’s the difference between “casi no veo nada” and “no veo casi nada”?

Both are correct and very close in meaning: I can hardly see anything.

Subtle difference in focus:

  • Casi no veo nada

    • Focus on how little you see overall.
    • Feels like: I almost don’t see anything at all.
  • No veo casi nada

    • Focus on “casi nada” (almost nothing).
    • Feels like: What I see is almost nothing.

In everyday conversation, they’re practically interchangeable.

Can I change the word order and say “Cuando hace viento, la bufanda me tapa los ojos y casi no veo nada”?

Yes, that is perfectly correct and very natural. In fact, putting the “cuando…” clause first is extremely common:

  • Cuando hace viento, la bufanda me tapa los ojos y casi no veo nada.

You cannot freely move “me” or “los ojos” around, though. For example:

  • La bufanda tapa me los ojos → incorrect (pronoun must go before the verb).
  • La bufanda me tapa cuando hace viento los ojos → very unnatural / wrong placement of “los ojos.”
Why is it “la bufanda” and not “mi bufanda”?

Both are possible; the meaning changes slightly:

  • La bufanda me tapa los ojos…

    • Could be any scarf you’re wearing at that moment.
    • The scarf is identified from context (the one you have on now).
  • Mi bufanda me tapa los ojos…

    • Emphasizes that it’s your own scarf, maybe one you often wear.

In many contexts, Spanish will just say “la bufanda” because it’s obvious it’s your scarf (you’re the one being bothered by it).

What tense is “tapa / hace / veo” in, and does it mean “right now” or “in general”?

Those verbs are in the present indicative:

  • tapa (from tapar)
  • hace (from hacer)
  • veo (from ver)

In Spanish, the present tense can describe:

  1. A general or habitual action:

    • La bufanda me tapa los ojos cuando hace viento.
      = My scarf covers my eyes when it’s windy (whenever that happens).
  2. Something happening now (with context):

    • (Ahora mismo) La bufanda me tapa los ojos y casi no veo nada.
      = (Right now) The scarf is covering my eyes and I can hardly see anything.

So context decides whether it’s habitual or right now, just like English present simple vs. present continuous overlap in some cases.