Learn Hardcore Spanish (Spain): En cambio, mi abuela lo toma con leche y pide más azúcar, y yo bato la leche un poco. - On the other hand, my grandmother drinks it with milk and asks for more sugar, and I whisk the milk a bit.

lo is the direct object pronoun for a masculine singular noun previously mentioned (very likely something like el café or el té).
Use la if the antecedent is feminine (e.g., la infusión → la toma con leche).
le is an indirect object pronoun; using le here would be a case of leísmo, acceptable for masculine people in much of Spain, but not for things. For a drink, use lo.

Where does the pronoun lo go in a sentence like this?

With a conjugated verb, it normally goes before: lo toma.
With an infinitive or a gerund, it can attach: tomarlo, está tomándolo (or before the auxiliary: lo está tomando).
With affirmative commands, it attaches: ¡Tómalo!

Why use tomar instead of beber?

In Spain, tomar is very common for consuming food/drink in general (“to have”), e.g., tomar café, tomar algo.
beber specifically means “to drink.” Both are correct here; tomar just sounds more idiomatic.

What does En cambio do, and do I need a comma after it?

How is En cambio different from sin embargo or pero?

En cambio contrasts two alternatives or behaviors: A does X; en cambio, B does Y.
sin embargo is concessive (“however/nevertheless”) and doesn’t necessarily set up a symmetric contrast.
pero is the basic “but,” often less formal and more general.

In pide más azúcar, why pedir and not preguntar?

pedir = to ask for / to order (a thing): pide más azúcar (“she asks for/orders more sugar”).
preguntar = to ask (a question): you’d use it with a clause or a question word, not with a direct object like sugar.

Should I add an indirect object pronoun with pedir, like le pide más azúcar al camarero?

If you name the person asked (e.g., al camarero), adding the pronoun (le) is very common and natural: Le pide más azúcar al camarero.
Without the pronoun is also possible when the indirect object comes after the verb: Pide más azúcar al camarero.
If the indirect object comes before the verb, the pronoun is practically obligatory: Al camarero le pide más azúcar.

Why is there no article in con leche, but there is one in bato la leche?

con leche is a set, generic combination (“with milk”), so no article.
bato la leche uses the definite article because it refers to the specific milk in this context (the milk in the drink).

Is the subject pronoun yo necessary in y yo bato la leche?

Not grammatically necessary; Spanish often drops subject pronouns.
It’s included for contrast and clarity after talking about mi abuela: it emphasizes the subject change to “I.”

What’s the nuance of bato la leche? Could I say something else for frothing milk?

batir = to beat/whisk; for coffee milk, it can imply whisking/frothing.
Barista/coffee contexts also use espumar (la leche) or montar (la leche) in Spain; all three can be heard, with espumar being very clear for “to make foam.”

Does un poco mean “a little,” and where can it go in the sentence?

un poco means “a little/a bit.” Compare: poco (“not much/scarcely”).
Both Bato la leche un poco and Bato un poco la leche are fine. un poquito is a more colloquial “a tiny bit.”

Is the comma before y okay in ..., y yo bato ...?

Spanish generally avoids a comma before y, but it’s acceptable to mark a pause or separate long, independent clauses, especially with a subject change. It’s a stylistic choice here, not an error.

Could I replace la leche with a pronoun and say ... y yo la bato un poco?

Yes, if “the milk” is already clear, la is the direct object pronoun: yo la bato un poco.
In this sentence, keeping la leche avoids pronoun stacking after lo and maintains clarity.

What about the verb forms: why pide and bato?

pedir is irregular (e → i): pido, pides, pide, ...
batir is regular: bato, bates, bate, ...
Both are in the simple present, which in Spanish can express current or habitual actions.

Is azúcar masculine or feminine?

Traditionally it’s masculine: el azúcar. You’ll hear both el azúcar blanco and el azúcar moreno.
Some speakers use feminine with modifiers: la azúcar morena. In everyday Spain Spanish, masculine is the default.

Why the accent in más, and does azúcar need one too?

más (“more”) always takes an accent; without it, mas means “but” (formal/literary).
azúcar also has an accent: azúcar (stress on the second syllable: a-ZÚ-car).

Could I say se lo toma con leche instead of lo toma con leche?

Yes, tomarse algo is common and slightly more colloquial/affectionate/subjective (“she has it/drinks it [for herself]”). Both lo toma and se lo toma are fine; the reflexive can add a nuance of personal involvement or completeness.