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¿Tendrá el cliente un impago, puesto que su contrato no está vigente?

¿Tendrá el cliente un impago, puesto que su contrato no está vigente?
Might the client have a default, since his contract is not valid?
From Lesson 341:Formal causes (dado que, puesto que, ya que)·Spanish (Latin America)

Questions & Answers about ¿Tendrá el cliente un impago, puesto que su contrato no está vigente?

Why is Tendrá translated as "Might... have" instead of "Will... have"?
In Spanish, the future tense is frequently used to express wonder, probability, or guessing about the present. This is known as the future of probability. Here, ¿Tendrá el cliente un impago? means "I wonder if the client has a default?" or "Might the client have a default (right now)?". If they meant a future event, it would translate to "Will the client have a default?". You can usually tell which meaning is intended from the context.
We use puesto que here to mean "since". Does it always trigger the indicative mood (está) instead of the subjunctive?
Yes, almost always! Formal causal conjunctions like puesto que, ya que, and dado que are used to introduce established facts or known reasons. Because you are declaring this reason as a reality (the contract is genuinely not valid), you use the indicative (está). You generally only use the subjunctive for reasons when you are explicitly denying them (such as with no porque...).
Why do we use está rather than es with vigente?
The word vigente means "in effect," "valid," or "current," typically referring to laws, rules, or contracts. Because being "in effect" is considered a temporary status or a condition that can change (since contracts eventually expire), it pairs with estar rather than ser.
What exactly does un impago mean in this context?
It literally translates to a "non-payment," but in business, financial, and legal contexts like this one, it means a "default" or "missed payment." It's a noun formed simply by adding the negative prefix im- to pago (payment).

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