Question 1

Why do we use the past perfect subjunctive (tivesse provocado) here instead of the imperfect subjunctive (provocasse)?

Accepted Answer

Because the sentence expresses regret about an event that is already in the past. Using Oxalá with the imperfect subjunctive (provocasse) would mean 'I wish it wouldn't cause' (a present or future wish). Using it with the past perfect subjunctive (tivesse provocado) shifts the meaning to a strong past regret: 'I wish it hadn't caused.'

Question 2

Could I use Quem me dera instead of Oxalá in this sentence?

Accepted Answer

Yes! You could say Quem me dera que a separação não tivesse provocado.... Both are natural ways to express a strong wish or regret, and both require the exact same verb tense here to show that the regret is about an unchangeable past event.

Question 3

Why does término have a written accent mark?

Accepted Answer

O término is a noun meaning 'the end' or 'conclusion.' In Portuguese, words where the spoken stress falls on the third-to-last syllable must always have a written accent. Without the accent, the word becomes termino, which is the present tense 'I' form of the verb terminar (I finish).

Question 4

Does provocar always mean 'to provoke' in an aggressive way?

Accepted Answer

Not always. While it can mean to taunt or provoke a person, in Portuguese provocar is very commonly used neutrally to mean 'to cause' or 'to bring about' a result or reaction. Here, it simply means the separation 'caused' the end of the friendship.

Oxalá a separação não tivesse provocado o término da amizade.

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