Breakdown of Si esa no me queda bien, me probaré la otra.
Questions & Answers about Si esa no me queda bien, me probaré la otra.
Why are esa and la otra used without a noun?
Because Spanish often leaves out the noun when it is already understood from the context.
Here, esa means that one and la otra means the other one. The missing noun is feminine singular, probably something like camisa, chaqueta, falda, etc.
So the full idea is something like:
But Spanish normally avoids repeating the noun if it is obvious.
Why are they feminine: esa and la otra?
What does me queda bien mean here?
Why is there a me in me queda bien?
Why is there another me in me probaré?
Could I say probaré la otra without me?
Yes, you may hear it, and people would probably understand you from the context. But with clothes, me probaré la otra is clearer and more natural because it explicitly means I’ll try the other one on.
Without me, probar can mean more general things like:
- try
- test
- taste
So for clothes, probarse is the safer and more idiomatic choice.
Why is it probaré and not probaría?
Because this is a normal if sentence about a real possibility.
Structure:
- Si + present indicative, then
- future (or another main-clause tense)
So:
- Si esa no me queda bien, me probaré la otra. = If that one doesn’t fit me well, I’ll try on the other one.
Spanish does not use the conditional after this kind of si.
So Si esa no me queda bien, me probaría la otra would not be the standard choice here.
Why is the verb after si in the present: si esa no me queda bien?
Because Spanish uses the present indicative after si when talking about a real or likely condition in the present or future.
This is the normal pattern:
English often uses present + future too:
- If it doesn’t fit, I’ll try the other one.
So this matches English fairly well.
Why is it la otra and not just otra?
Because la otra means the other one, referring to a specific alternative that both speaker and listener know about.
Compare:
- otra = another one
- la otra = the other one
So here the speaker is choosing between known options, probably two garments:
- If that one doesn’t fit me well, I’ll try on the other one.
Using la makes it definite.
Why is it queda and not quedan?
What is the difference between esa, esta, and aquella here?
They are demonstratives:
- esta = this one
- esa = that one
- aquella = that one over there / that one further away
In Spain, this three-way distinction is still commonly taught and often used.
In this sentence, esa suggests that one rather than this one. It may be physically farther away, or simply one of the available options that the speaker is pointing out.
Is quedar bien only about size, or can it also mean appearance?
It can mean both.
With clothes, me queda bien can mean:
- it fits me well
- it looks good on me
- it suits me
So the sentence may be about size, style, or overall fit/appearance.
If you want to be more specifically about size, Spanish might use other expressions too, depending on context, such as:
But me queda bien is very natural and common.
Why is no written separately here? Is this related to sino?
Is the word order flexible here?
Yes, to some extent. The given sentence is very natural:
You could also hear small variations, for example:
- Si esa no me queda bien, probaré la otra.
- Si no me queda bien esa, me probaré la otra.
But the original version sounds very standard and clear.
The pronoun me normally goes before a conjugated verb:
- me queda
- me probaré
So you would not say probaréme in modern Spanish.
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