Learn Hardcore Spanish (Spain): En mi opinión, todas las personas tienen los mismos derechos y la misma libertad para amar a quien quieran. - In my opinion, all people have the same rights and the same freedom to love whomever they want.

En mi opinión is a bit more formal and “objective”. It’s like saying In my opinion in English; it introduces a judgment, idea, or argument.
- Example: En mi opinión, esta ley es injusta.
Para mí is more informal and personal, often closer to for me / as I see it.
- Example: Para mí, esta ley es injusta.

In this sentence, En mi opinión fits well because it feels like a considered statement about rights and freedom, almost like part of a debate or essay. In everyday conversation, Spaniards also say Para mí, todas las personas…, and it wouldn’t be wrong—just a bit more colloquial.

Why todas las personas and not todo el mundo, toda la gente, or just todos?

All of these are possible, but they have slightly different nuances:

todas las personas – very explicit and inclusive; literally all people. It sounds neutral and a bit more formal/universal, great for talking about rights.
todo el mundo – very common in speech; literally everyone. Slightly more informal.
- Todo el mundo tiene los mismos derechos...
toda la gente – also common in informal speech; all the people / everyone.
todos – needs context; on its own it can mean everyone, but often refers to a specific group already mentioned.

In a sentence about human rights, todas las personas is a good choice because it clearly emphasizes every person, with no ambiguity.

Why is it todas las personas (feminine) but los mismos derechos (masculine)? Shouldn’t they agree?

The agreement is with the noun each adjective or article belongs to, not with personas:

todas agrees with personas:
- personas is feminine plural → todas las personas
los mismos agrees with derechos:
- derechos is masculine plural → los mismos derechos
la misma agrees with libertad:
- libertad is feminine singular → la misma libertad

So:

todas las personas (fem. pl.)
tienen los mismos derechos (masc. pl.)
y la misma libertad (fem. sg.)

Each phrase is internally consistent; they don’t all have to match each other.

Why do we use los mismos derechos instead of los igual derechos or something with igual?

Spanish normally compares nouns using mismo rather than igual:

los mismos derechos = the same rights
la misma libertad = the same freedom

igual is used more as an adverb or adjective meaning equal / the same in a different structure:

Tienen derechos iguales. = They have equal rights.
Tienen la misma libertad. = They have the same freedom.

So:

los mismos derechos is the most natural way to say the same rights.
derechos iguales is possible but sounds a bit more technical/legal.
los igual derechos is incorrect; igual doesn’t work there.

Why do we need the definite articles los and la in los mismos derechos and la misma libertad?

In Spanish, when you make a general statement about rights, freedom, education, etc., you often use the definite article:

Los niños necesitan educación. = Children need education.
La libertad es importante. = Freedom is important.

Here:

los mismos derechos = the same rights
la misma libertad = the same freedom

If you said tienen mismos derechos or tienen misma libertad, it would sound incorrect or at least very unnatural. The articles are required in this structure.

Why is it para amar and not de amar or just amar?

Para introduces purpose or goal:

libertad para amar = freedom to love (freedom in order to love)

Other options:

libertad de amar exists, but it’s less common and sounds more abstract or legalistic. In everyday speech, libertad para + infinitive is the usual pattern for “freedom to do X”.
- libertad de expresión (fixed phrase: freedom of speech)
- but libertad para elegir / para amar / para hablar (freedom to choose / to love / to speak)

You could say just la libertad de amar a quien quieran, but para amar is more idiomatic when you are talking about what people are free to do.

Why do we say amar a quien quieran and not just amar quien quieran? What is the a doing there?

The a is the personal a, used before a direct object that is a person (or treated like a person):

Amo a Juan.
Quiero a mis amigos.

In amar a quien quieran:

The verb is amar.
The (indefinite) direct object is quien = the person/people who.
Because this object refers to people, you need a → a quien.

So:

amar a quien quieran = to love whoever they want
Without the a (amar quien quieran), it sounds wrong to native speakers.

Why is it a quien quieran and not a quienes quieran if we are talking about “all people”?

Spanish has two forms: quien (singular) and quienes (plural), and both are used in real life, but the rules and usage are a bit flexible.

In this kind of sentence, the most common options are:

amar a quien quieran
amar a quienes quieran

Both are heard, especially in Spain. Some points:

a quien quieran is very common in spoken Spanish; many speakers treat quien here as not strongly marked for number.
a quienes quieran is more explicitly plural and sometimes feels more formal or careful.

Here, quieran is plural (matching the implied they from todas las personas), so the plural idea is already clear; that’s why quien in singular doesn’t cause confusion.

In a very formal written context, a quienes quieran might be preferred, but a quien quieran is perfectly natural Spanish.

Why is the verb quieran in the subjunctive and not quieren (indicative)?

The subjunctive quieran appears because we have:

an indefinite or “free choice” relative clause: a quien quieran

Spanish uses the subjunctive when the person/thing indicated by quien / el que / la que, etc., is not specific or is hypothetical:

Pueden amar a quien quieran. = They can love whoever they want.
Ayudaré a quien lo necesite. = I will help whoever needs it.

If you used quieren (indicative), it would normally suggest a specific group of people already identified:

Pueden amar a quien quieren. = They can love the person/persons they (already) love.
- This feels like referring to known people, not an open, unrestricted choice.

Because the sentence is about general freedom to love whoever they wish (no restriction), quieran (subjunctive) is the natural and correct choice.

Why is the verb quieran plural? What is its subject?

The subject of quieran is the implied ellos / ellas from todas las personas.

The structure is:

todas las personas (subject of tienen)
tienen los mismos derechos y la misma libertad para amar
(a quien) quieran → “whom they love”

So the hidden subject they (referring back to todas las personas) makes quieran plural:

(Ellos) quieran → they may want

Even though quien looks singular, the verb agrees with the real subject of the sentence (the people), not with quien.

Could we change the order and say la misma libertad y los mismos derechos? Does the order change the meaning?

You can absolutely say:

En mi opinión, todas las personas tienen la misma libertad y los mismos derechos para amar a quien quieran.

The meaning is the same. The difference is only in emphasis and rhythm:

Original: los mismos derechos y la misma libertad – starts with derechos, then libertad.
Alternative: la misma libertad y los mismos derechos – starts with libertad, then derechos.

A speaker might choose one order or the other depending on what they want to highlight first, but grammatically and semantically both are fine.