Breakdown of Είχα να δω την πεθερά μου από τον Ιανουάριο, γιατί έμενε στο χωριό.
Questions & Answers about Είχα να δω την πεθερά μου από τον Ιανουάριο, γιατί έμενε στο χωριό.
What does Είχα να δω mean here? Does it literally mean I had to see?
Here it does not mean obligation.
In this sentence, είχα να δω is the past version of a very common Greek pattern:
έχω / είχα να + verb
This can mean I haven’t / hadn’t done X for some time or it has / had been since I did X.
So:
Είχα να δω την πεθερά μου από τον Ιανουάριο
= I hadn’t seen my mother-in-law since January
or more literally
= It had been since January that I had seen my mother-in-law
Greek learners often confuse this with obligation, because έχω να + verb can sometimes also mean I have to do something in other contexts. But here, because of από τον Ιανουάριο, the time meaning is clearly intended.
How is είχα να δω different from δεν είχα δει?
They are related, but not identical.
δεν είχα δει simply means I had not seen.
είχα να δω adds the idea of elapsed time:
- δεν είχα δει την πεθερά μου = I had not seen my mother-in-law
- είχα να δω την πεθερά μου από τον Ιανουάριο = I hadn’t seen my mother-in-law since January
So είχα να δω is the more natural choice when Greek wants to emphasize how long it had been since the last time.
Why is the verb δω used after να?
After να, Greek uses a special dependent verb form. In learner-friendly terms, you can think of να δω as to see / see in a dependent structure.
Here δω is used because the speaker is thinking of seeing her as a single complete event, not as an ongoing process.
So:
- να δω = to see / see her once, as a whole event
- not να βλέπω, which would sound more ongoing or repeated
That fits the meaning I hadn’t seen her since January: it refers to the event of seeing her.
Is δω really from βλέπω? They look very different.
Yes. δω belongs to the verb βλέπω.
This verb is irregular across its stems:
- present: βλέπω = I see
- aorist: είδα = I saw
- dependent perfective form: να δω, θα δω = that I see / I will see
So even though βλέπω and δω look very different, they are forms of the same verb.
This is one of the verb families Greek learners simply need to get used to.
Why is it την πεθερά μου and not η πεθερά μου?
Because την πεθερά μου is the direct object of δω.
The basic dictionary form is:
- η πεθερά = the mother-in-law
But after the verb see, Greek needs the accusative case:
- βλέπω την πεθερά μου = I see my mother-in-law
So here:
- η πεθερά = subject form
- την πεθερά = object form
What exactly does πεθερά mean?
πεθερά means mother-in-law.
In this sentence, την πεθερά μου means my mother-in-law.
It does not mean stepmother.
A stepmother is μητριά.
Why does μου come after the noun instead of before it?
In Greek, possessive clitics like μου usually come after the noun:
- η μητέρα μου = my mother
- ο φίλος μου = my friend
- την πεθερά μου = my mother-in-law
So this is the normal Greek order.
If you want extra emphasis, Greek can use a fuller structure such as:
- τη δική μου πεθερά = my own mother-in-law / my mother-in-law in particular
But in ordinary speech, την πεθερά μου is the standard pattern.
Why is it από τον Ιανουάριο? Why is there an article before the month?
Greek very often uses the definite article with names of months:
- ο Ιανουάριος = January
- τον Ιανουάριο = January, in the accusative
After από, the month appears in the accusative:
- από τον Ιανουάριο = since January / from January
So the article is completely normal here.
Does από mean from or since in this sentence?
Here it means since.
Greek uses από both for place and time:
- από την Αθήνα = from Athens
- από τον Ιανουάριο = since January
So the exact English translation depends on context. In this sentence, because it refers to time passing up to a later point, since is the natural translation.
What does γιατί mean here? Could it also mean why?
Here γιατί means because.
Yes, γιατί can also mean why in questions:
- Γιατί έφυγες; = Why did you leave?
But in this sentence it introduces an explanation:
..., γιατί έμενε στο χωριό.
= ..., because she was living in the village.
So context tells you which meaning is intended.
Why is the verb έμενε in the imperfect?
έμενε is the imperfect of μένω.
The imperfect is used here because the sentence describes an ongoing background situation:
- έμενε στο χωριό = she was living in the village / she lived in the village
This explains why the speaker had not seen her.
Greek uses the imperfect for things that were:
- ongoing
- habitual
- background information
So έμενε fits well.
Why not έμεινε instead of έμενε?
Because έμεινε is aorist, and that would suggest a more bounded, completed event, such as:
- she stayed
- she moved in
- she remained
But έμενε describes an ongoing state:
- she was living
- she used to live
In this sentence, the speaker is not focusing on a single completed act of staying somewhere. The point is that her living in the village was the continuing situation that kept them apart.
What is στο χωριό exactly?
στο is the contracted form of:
- σε + το = στο
So:
- στο χωριό = in the village / to the village, depending on context
Here, with έμενε, it means in the village:
έμενε στο χωριό = she was living in the village
Also, χωριό is a neuter noun:
- το χωριό = the village
Why is there no word for she before έμενε?
Because Greek often leaves subject pronouns out when they are not needed.
The verb ending already shows the person:
- έμενε = he/she/it was living
So Greek does not need to say αυτή unless the speaker wants emphasis or contrast.
This is very common in Greek:
- πήγα = I went
- ήρθες = you came
- έμενε = he/she was living
Could the word order be different?
Yes. Greek word order is more flexible than English.
This sentence could be rearranged, for example:
- Είχα να δω από τον Ιανουάριο την πεθερά μου, γιατί έμενε στο χωριό.
- Γιατί έμενε στο χωριό, είχα να δω την πεθερά μου από τον Ιανουάριο.
But the original order is very natural.
Greek changes word order mainly for:
- emphasis
- rhythm
- information structure
So the original sentence is not the only possible order, just a normal one.
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