Learn Hardcore Greek: Από τότε που ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας πέθανε, διαβάζω πιο συχνά τα παλιά του βιβλία. - Since my favorite author died, I read his old books more often.

«Από τότε που» literally means “from the time when” and is used like English “since” (in the temporal sense: ever since the moment when…).

«Από τότε που ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας πέθανε…»
= Since (the time when) my favourite writer died…

Differences:

«από τότε που»
Expresses a starting point in time that continues up to now. Very close to English since.
- Από τότε που ήρθες, είμαι χαρούμενος. = Since you came, I’ve been happy.
«όταν» = when
Neutral “when” for a point or period in time; it doesn’t imply “since then until now”.
- Όταν ο συγγραφέας μου πέθανε, έκλαψα. = When my writer died, I cried. (just that moment)
«αφού» can mean:
- after, time sequence: Αφού έφυγε, έκλαψα = After he left, I cried.
- or since / given that in a causal sense: Αφού πέθανε, διαβάζω… = Since he died, I read… (because he died).

So «από τότε που» is specifically temporal “since (then)”, while «αφού» is often more causal, and «όταν» is a simple “when”.

Why is «πέθανε» (simple past/aorist) used here instead of something like «έχει πεθάνει», which looks more like English “has died”?

Greek usually uses the aorist (πέθανε) for one completed event in the past, even if it has present consequences.

«Από τότε που ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας πέθανε…»
= “Since my favourite writer died…” (one clear event)

The form «έχει πεθάνει» (perfect: he has died) exists, but:

It’s used much less frequently than the English present perfect.
It emphasizes the resulting state (he is now dead) rather than the event.
With «από τότε που», the natural tense is aorist:
- Από τότε που γνώρισα την Άννα, είμαι χαρούμενος.
  Since I met Anna, I’m happy.
- Από τότε που μετακόμισα, οδηγώ λιγότερο.
  Since I moved, I drive less.

«Από τότε που έχει πεθάνει» is grammatically possible but sounds marked/less natural; everyday Greek strongly prefers «πέθανε» here.

Why do we say «ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας» with the article «ο»? In English we just say “my favourite writer” without the.

In Greek, when you have a possessive pronoun (μου, σου, του, της, μας, σας, τους), you almost always also use the definite article:

ο φίλος μου = my friend
η μητέρα μου = my mother
το βιβλίο σου = your book

So «ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας» literally looks like “the favourite writer of mine”, but it’s the normal way to say “my favourite writer”.

Leaving the article out (αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας) is possible in certain more stylistic/literary contexts, but with possessives the article is standard and sounds most natural.

Why is the possessive «μου» placed after «αγαπημένος» (in «ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας») and not before, like in English “my favourite writer”?

Greek unstressed possessive pronouns (μου, σου, του, της, μας, σας, τους) usually come after the noun phrase they modify. The typical order is:

article + adjective(s) + noun + possessive

So:

ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας
article (ο) + adjective (αγαπημένος) + noun (συγγραφέας) + possessive (μου)

Other examples:

ο καλός μου φίλος = my good friend
το μικρό σου σπίτι = your small house

You do not say *μου αγαπημένος συγγραφέας in standard Greek; putting μου before the noun or adjective sounds ungrammatical or at least very odd in normal speech.

Could we also say «ο αγαπημένος συγγραφέας μου» instead of «ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας»? Is there any difference?

Yes, both are grammatically correct:

ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας
ο αγαπημένος συγγραφέας μου

The difference is very small and often just a matter of style and rhythm. Both mean “my favourite writer”.

Some tendencies:

ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας
Very common, slightly more “tight” as a phrase; many speakers default to this order.
ο αγαπημένος συγγραφέας μου
Also normal; some people use this automatically, especially in speech.

For learners, you can treat them as practically equivalent; you’ll hear both.

Why is «διαβάζω» in the present tense? In English we might say “I’ve been reading his old books more often since…”.

Greek present tense (διαβάζω) covers both:

simple present: I read
and present progressive / habitual: I am reading / I read regularly

So:

διαβάζω πιο συχνά τα παλιά του βιβλία
can mean:
- I read his old books more often.
- I’ve been reading his old books more often.

The context with «Από τότε που…» naturally gives a habitual, ongoing meaning:

“Ever since he died, I (have been) read(ing) his old books more often.”

Greek doesn’t need a special continuous form here; the simple present is enough.

How does «πιο συχνά» work grammatically? Is there also a form like «συχνότερα»?

Yes, both exist and are correct.

«συχνά» = often (adverb)
«πιο συχνά» = more often (comparative with πιο)
«συχνότερα» = more often (comparative formed with the suffix -ότερα)

So:

διαβάζω συχνά = I read often
διαβάζω πιο συχνά = I read more often
διαβάζω συχνότερα = I read more often

In modern, everyday Greek, forming the comparative with πιο + adverb is more common and more neutral, so «πιο συχνά» feels very natural.

In «τα παλιά του βιβλία», what exactly does «του» refer to, and why is it in the genitive?

«του» here is the genitive singular of the third‑person pronoun, meaning “his”:

τα βιβλία του = his books
τα παλιά του βιβλία = his old books

It refers back to «ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας» – the last male singular person mentioned. Greek uses the genitive for possession:

το σπίτι του = his house
το αυτοκίνητό της = her car
η ιδέα τους = their idea

So «τα παλιά του βιβλία» literally is “the old books of him”, i.e. his old books.

Could we also say «τα παλιά βιβλία του» instead of «τα παλιά του βιβλία»? Is there any difference?

Yes, both word orders are allowed:

τα παλιά του βιβλία
τα παλιά βιβλία του

They both mean “his old books”.

Subtle tendencies:

τα παλιά του βιβλία
Slightly stronger grouping of του directly with βιβλία inside the noun phrase, a bit more “compact”.
τα παλιά βιβλία του
Also completely natural; many speakers use this default order.

In everyday use, there’s no real difference in meaning; you can freely use either as a learner.

Why is there no explicit “I” (like «εγώ») before «διαβάζω»?

Greek is a “pro‑drop” language: the subject pronoun is often omitted because the verb ending already shows the person and number.

διαβάζω = I read
διαβάζεις = you read
διαβάζει = he/she/it reads

So «…διαβάζω πιο συχνά τα παλιά του βιβλία.» already clearly means “I read his old books more often.”

You can say «Εγώ διαβάζω…» for emphasis:

Εγώ διαβάζω πιο συχνά τα παλιά του βιβλία, όχι ο αδερφός μου.
I read his old books more often, not my brother.

But with no special emphasis, leaving out «εγώ» is normal and preferred.

Why is there a comma after «πέθανε»?

The part «Από τότε που ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας πέθανε» is a subordinate (time) clause. When this kind of clause comes at the beginning of the sentence in Greek, it is usually followed by a comma, just like in English:

Όταν τελειώσω, θα σε πάρω τηλέφωνο.
When I finish, I’ll call you.
Από τότε που ήρθες, είμαι καλύτερα.
Since you came, I’m better.

If the order were reversed, often no comma is used:

Διαβάζω πιο συχνά τα παλιά του βιβλία από τότε που ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας πέθανε.

So the comma just marks where the introductory time clause ends and the main clause begins.

Why is «αγαπημένος» masculine? What would happen if the writer were a woman?

The adjective «αγαπημένος» agrees in gender, number, and case with «συγγραφέας».

ο συγγραφέας (masculine form of the noun)
→ ο αγαπημένος συγγραφέας (masc. adj.)

However, «συγγραφέας» is a common‑gender noun: the form of the noun is usually the same for a man or a woman. You show the gender mainly with the article and adjectives:

ο αγαπημένος μου συγγραφέας = my favourite (male) writer
η αγαπημένη μου συγγραφέας = my favourite (female) writer

So if the writer in your sentence is a woman, you would say:

Από τότε που η αγαπημένη μου συγγραφέας πέθανε, διαβάζω πιο συχνά τα παλιά της βιβλία.