Η δασκάλα λέει ότι είναι βεβαίως λογικός στόχος να μιλάμε λίγο καλύτερα κάθε μήνα.

Breakdown of Η δασκάλα λέει ότι είναι βεβαίως λογικός στόχος να μιλάμε λίγο καλύτερα κάθε μήνα.

είμαι
to be
μιλάω
to speak
λίγο
a little
να
to
ότι
that
καλύτερα
better
κάθε μήνα
every month
η δασκάλα
the female teacher
λέω
to say
ο στόχος
the goal
βεβαίως
of course
λογικός
reasonable
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Questions & Answers about Η δασκάλα λέει ότι είναι βεβαίως λογικός στόχος να μιλάμε λίγο καλύτερα κάθε μήνα.

Why do we use ότι after λέει here? Is it like that in English?

Yes. In this sentence, λέει ότι… works like “(she) says that…” in English.

  • ότι introduces a reported/indirect statement: what the teacher is saying.
  • You could also use πως here (λέει πως…) with almost the same meaning in modern Greek. ότι is a bit more neutral or formal; πως can feel slightly more colloquial in many contexts.
  • Don’t confuse this ότι (conjunction = that) with ό,τι (with a comma), which means whatever / anything that.

Why is there no word for it in είναι βεβαίως λογικός στόχος? In English we say “it is a logical goal”.

Greek usually drops the dummy “it” in sentences like this.

  • English: It is a logical goal to…
  • Greek: (Ø) είναι λογικός στόχος να… (no explicit subject like it)

The subject is understood from context as ο στόχος (the goal) or as an impersonal judgment. Greek doesn’t need a separate pronoun for this kind of impersonal “it”.


Why don’t we have the indefinite article ένας before λογικός στόχος? Why not είναι ένας λογικός στόχος?

Both are possible, but Greek often omits the indefinite article in “X is (a) Y” type sentences when describing a role, quality, or classification:

  • Είναι δάσκαλος. = He is a teacher.
  • Είναι λογικός στόχος. = It is a logical goal.

Adding ένας can give a slight nuance of “one logical goal (among others)”, or a bit of emphasis:

  • Είναι ένας λογικός στόχος. = It is one logical/sensible goal (maybe not the only one).

In your sentence, omission is natural and very common.


Why is it λογικός στόχος (masculine) and not λογικό στόχος?

Because adjectives in Greek agree with the noun in gender, number and case.

  • στόχος is masculine singular nominative.
  • So its adjective must also be masculine singular nominative: λογικός στόχος.

If the noun were neuter, you would see λογικό:

  • λογικό πράγμα (neuter noun + neuter adjective)
  • λογικός στόχος (masculine noun + masculine adjective)

So λογικός is just matching στόχος in form.


What exactly does βεβαίως mean here? Is it like of course, certainly, or obviously?

βεβαίως is an adverb meaning something like:

  • of course,
  • certainly,
  • indeed.

In this sentence it emphasizes that the goal is clearly reasonable:

  • είναι βεβαίως λογικός στόχος…
    = it is certainly / of course a logical/sensible goal…

Related words:

  • βέβαιος (adjective): sure, certain
  • βέβαια (adverb/particle): in everyday speech, often used like βεβαίως, a bit more colloquial:
    • Ναι, βέβαια. = Yes, of course.
  • βεβαίως can sound a bit more formal/polite, especially on its own as an answer (—Μπορώ; —Βεβαίως.)

Why is it να μιλάμε and not να μιλήσουμε? What is the difference?

Both are subjunctive, but they differ in aspect:

  • να μιλάμε (present subjunctive)
    – focuses on an ongoing / repeated / habitual action.
    – Here, the idea is: to be speaking better on an ongoing basis, month after month.

  • να μιλήσουμε (aorist subjunctive)
    – focuses on the action as a single, complete event (one act of speaking).

Since the sentence talks about every month and an ongoing improvement process, Greek prefers the present subjunctive: να μιλάμε.


Why do we use μιλάμε and not μιλούμε or μιλάω? Are these different forms?

They are forms of the same verb, just different style/register or person:

  • Dictionary form: μιλάω / μιλώ (I speak)
  • 1st person plural:
    • μιλάμε (common, colloquial)
    • μιλούμε (more formal/standard, or Cypriot)

In everyday modern Greek, μιλάμε is the most common 1st person plural form:

  • να μιλάμε = (that) we speak / are speaking.

μιλάω vs μιλώ: both are accepted 1st person singular. μιλάω is more colloquial; μιλώ a bit more formal/“textbooky”.


Why is καλύτερα used here and not something like πιο καλά? Are they the same?

καλύτερα is the comparative of the adverb καλά (well):

  • καλά = well
  • καλύτερα = better (in the sense of more well)

πιο καλά literally means more well, and in everyday Greek it’s often used with the same meaning as καλύτερα. So:

  • να μιλάμε λίγο καλύτερα
  • να μιλάμε λίγο πιο καλά

are both understandable and close in meaning. καλύτερα is a bit shorter and more “standard” as the comparative form.


What is the role of λίγο before καλύτερα? Does it mean a little or slightly?

Yes. λίγο here is an adverb meaning a little / slightly / somewhat, and it modifies καλύτερα:

  • καλύτερα = better
  • λίγο καλύτερα = a little better / slightly better

So the nuance is modest improvement rather than dramatic change: “to speak a bit better” each month.


Why is it κάθε μήνα and not κάθε μήνας or something with a preposition like σε κάθε μήνα?

With κάθε (= every/each), Greek uses the singular form of the noun, normally in the appropriate case. Here:

  • κάθε μήνα = every month (accusative singular)

You do not add a preposition like σε in this expression of frequency; κάθε + time word is enough:

  • κάθε μέρα = every day
  • κάθε εβδομάδα = every week
  • κάθε χρόνο = every year

κάθε μήνας would be ungrammatical here; κάθε does not take nominative like that unless it’s in a different syntactic role (e.g. subject in a different kind of sentence).


Can βεβαίως go in other positions, like είναι λογικός στόχος βεβαίως να μιλάμε…? Does the meaning change?

Yes, βεβαίως is fairly flexible in position. You might hear:

  • είναι βεβαίως λογικός στόχος να μιλάμε…
  • είναι λογικός στόχος, βεβαίως, να μιλάμε…
  • βεβαίως είναι λογικός στόχος να μιλάμε…

The core meaning (certainly / of course) stays the same, but:

  • Earlier placement (βεβαίως είναι…) can emphasize the certainty.
  • Insertion with commas (…στόχος, βεβαίως, να…) feels a bit more parenthetical, like “a logical target, of course,”.

The version in your sentence is very natural and neutral.


Why is it να μιλάμε and not something like να μιλάς or να μιλάω? Who is included in μιλάμε?

μιλάμε is 1st person plural (“we”). The idea is:

  • να μιλάμε = (for) us to speak / that we speak.

The teacher is probably including herself and the students, or speaking in general about people learning a language: “for us (people learning) to speak a bit better every month.”

If you wanted to talk only about you (singular):

  • να μιλάς λίγο καλύτερα κάθε μήνα = for you to speak a bit better every month.

But the original sentence describes a general or shared goal, so μιλάμε is used.


What kind of structure is λογικός στόχος να μιλάμε λίγο καλύτερα…? Is να μιλάμε… like an infinitive?

Modern Greek has no true infinitive like English. Instead, it uses να + subjunctive:

  • να μιλάμε functions similarly to to speak / to be speaking in this context.

So:

  • λογικός στόχος να μιλάμε λίγο καλύτερα κάθε μήνα
    a logical goal (is) to speak a little better every month

Grammatically:

  • λογικός στόχος = noun phrase
  • να μιλάμε λίγο καλύτερα κάθε μήνα = a subordinate clause introduced by να, acting like an infinitive clause in English (“to speak…”).