Comment la marque va-t-elle évaluer ces tendances ?

Questions & Answers about Comment la marque va-t-elle évaluer ces tendances ?

Why does this sentence say la marque va-t-elle instead of just inverting the verb and subject like va la marque?
In formal French, when the subject of an inverted question is a noun (like la marque) instead of a pronoun (like elle), you must use "complex inversion." You state the noun subject first, then the verb, and then you add the matching pronoun. So, la marque va becomes la marque va-t-elle.
What is the purpose of the -t- in va-t-elle?
It is there just to make pronunciation easier. French dislikes having two vowel sounds right next to each other (the 'a' in va and the 'e' in elle). The -t- breaks up the vowels. It does not mean anything on its own and is always surrounded by hyphens.
Why is only va inverted with elle, while évaluer stays at the end?
This sentence uses the near future tense, which is built with a conjugated form of aller (va) plus an infinitive (évaluer). In any inverted question with a two-part verb like this, only the conjugated verb flips with the pronoun. The infinitive stays exactly where it normally would.
Could I ask this same question without using complex inversion?
Yes! In everyday spoken French, you would usually hear this with est-ce que: Comment est-ce que la marque va évaluer ces tendances ? You could also use standard word order with rising intonation: Comment la marque va évaluer ces tendances ? Complex inversion is mostly reserved for formal writing or very formal speech.

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