Question 1

Why does râ come immediately after mehvari and before ke, instead of at the end of the phrase?

Accepted Answer

In Farsi, when a relative clause modifies a direct object, the definite object marker râ is placed right after the antecedent (the noun being described) and its suffix -i, but before the word ke (that). So we say mehvari râ ke rather than putting râ after kharidi.

Question 2

What is the role of the -i at the end of mehvari? Is it making the noun indefinite?

Accepted Answer

Not exactly. While -i is often the indefinite article (a/an), here it acts as a restrictive suffix linking the noun to the relative clause. It signals that a specific description is about to follow. Paired with râ, it means you are talking about 'the specific axis that...' despite having the -i suffix.

Question 3

Why is avaz konim (change) in the subjunctive mood here?

Accepted Answer

The word shâyad (perhaps/maybe) expresses doubt or possibility. In Farsi, verbs describing the uncertain action following shâyad must be in the subjunctive mood, which is why we use avaz konim instead of the indicative avaz mikonim.

Question 4

If shâyad makes the sentence uncertain, why is kharidi (you bought) in the simple past rather than a subjunctive form?

Accepted Answer

The uncertainty of shâyad only applies to the main action: whether or not we will change the axis. The fact that you bought the axis is a completed, certain reality in the past, so the verb inside the relative clause (kharidi) simply takes the normal past tense.

شاید محوری را که خریدی، عوض کنیم.

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