Tengo los boletos y los vendo.

Questions & Answers about Tengo los boletos y los vendo.

Why does the second los come before vendo instead of after it?
In English, we put the pronoun after the verb ("I sell them"). But in Spanish, when you use a direct object pronoun like los with a conjugated verb like vendo, the pronoun must go right before the verb. Think of it literally as saying "...and them I sell."
Why is the word los used twice in this sentence? Do they mean the same thing?
They actually mean different things! The first los is an article that means "the" (los boletos = the tickets). The second los is a direct object pronoun that means "them" (los vendo = I sell them). You can tell them apart because the article comes before a noun, and the pronoun comes before a verb.
Why do we use los to say "them" here?
The pronoun has to match the gender and number of the noun it is replacing. Since it replaces los boletos (the tickets), which is masculine and plural, we use the masculine plural pronoun los. If you were selling something feminine and plural, like las casas (the houses), you would say las vendo instead.
Where is the word for "I" in this sentence?
In Spanish, the subject pronoun yo (I) is usually dropped because the verb itself tells you who is doing the action. Both tengo (I have) and vendo (I sell) end in -o, which is the typical ending for "I" in the present tense. Saying Yo tengo... would sound repetitive unless you really wanted to emphasize that you are the one doing it.

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