Stjórinn keypti einkaleyfið fyrir fyrirtækið.

Questions & Answers about Stjórinn keypti einkaleyfið fyrir fyrirtækið.

Wait, is keypti in the past indicative ("bought") or the past subjunctive ("would buy") here?
Out of context, it is actually impossible to tell! Because kaupa (to buy) is a weak verb, its past subjunctive forms are completely identical to its past indicative forms. Here it translates to "bought" (indicative), but in a sentence like "Ég óska að stjórinn keypti það" (I wish the boss would buy it), keypti would be the past subjunctive.
What is the literal meaning of einkaleyfið?
It is a compound of the prefix einka- (private or exclusive) and the noun leyfi (permission or license). An "exclusive permission" is a patent or a monopoly. The -ð at the end is the attached neuter definite article, making it "the patent".
Why are both einkaleyfið and fyrirtækið in the accusative case?
They are accusative for two different reasons. Einkaleyfið is the direct object of the verb keypti (it is the thing being bought). Fyrirtækið, on the other hand, is governed by the preposition fyrir. When fyrir means "for" (intended for or for the benefit of), it requires the following noun to be in the accusative case.
Why don't the endings of einkaleyfið and fyrirtækið look any different in the accusative case?
Both leyfi and fyrirtæki are neuter nouns. In Icelandic, neuter nouns always look exactly the same in the accusative case as they do in the nominative case, even when the definite article is attached to the end.

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