Ojalá las avispas no se acercaran a la comida, porque mi prima les tiene bastante miedo.

Questions & Answers about Ojalá las avispas no se acercaran a la comida, porque mi prima les tiene bastante miedo.

What does ojalá do in this sentence?

Ojalá expresses a wish, hope, or strong desire, something like I wish, hopefully, or if only.

In Spanish, ojalá is normally followed by the subjunctive, because it introduces something wished for rather than something presented as a fact.

So:

  • Ojalá... = I wish... / If only...

In this sentence, the speaker is expressing a wish about the wasps staying away from the food.


Why is it se acercaran and not se acercan?

Because after ojalá, Spanish uses the subjunctive, not the indicative.

The indicative would sound wrong here because the speaker is not describing a fact; they are expressing a wish.

So:

  • Ojalá las avispas no se acercaran... = correct
  • Ojalá las avispas no se acercan... = incorrect

Why is the imperfect subjunctive used here instead of the present subjunctive?

This is a very common question. After ojalá, the tense of the subjunctive changes the nuance.

Ojalá + present subjunctive

Used for a wish that feels more possible or more open in the present/future.

  • Ojalá las avispas no se acerquen a la comida.
    I hope the wasps don’t come near the food.

Ojalá + imperfect subjunctive

Used for a more hypothetical, less likely, or more emotionally distanced wish; often like I wish they wouldn’t...

  • Ojalá las avispas no se acercaran a la comida.

So in your sentence, se acercaran gives a slightly more resigned or hypothetical feeling, as if the speaker sees this as difficult to control.


Could I also say Ojalá las avispas no se acerquen a la comida?

Yes. That would also be correct, but the nuance changes slightly.

  • Ojalá... no se acerquen... = I hope they don’t come near the food
  • Ojalá... no se acercaran... = I wish they wouldn’t come near the food / If only they stayed away

The version with imperfect subjunctive often sounds a bit more wistful, less optimistic, or more hypothetical.


Why is there a se in se acercaran? Is acercarse reflexive?

Yes, here the verb is acercarse a, which means to go near, to come close to, or to approach.

So:

  • acercar = to bring something closer
    • Acercó la silla a la mesa. = He moved the chair closer to the table.
  • acercarse a = to approach / to come near
    • Las avispas se acercan a la comida. = The wasps approach the food.

The se is part of the verb acercarse in this meaning.


Why is it a la comida?

Because the verb pattern is acercarse a algo/alguien = to approach something/someone.

So the preposition a is required:

  • acercarse a la comida
  • acercarse al fuego
  • acercarse a una persona

It is just part of the verb construction, not the personal a.


What does les refer to in mi prima les tiene bastante miedo?

Les refers to las avispas.

So the idea is:

  • Mi prima les tiene bastante miedo
    = My cousin is quite afraid of them
  • them = the wasps

Even though mi prima is singular, les is plural because it refers to the wasps, not to the cousin.


Why is it les tiene miedo and not las tiene miedo?

Because with tener miedo (a), Spanish commonly uses le/les to refer to the person or animal feared.

So you get:

  • Le tengo miedo a ese perro.
  • Les tengo miedo a las avispas.

Even though English speakers may expect a direct-object pronoun like las, Spanish normally uses le/les in this pattern.

This is something you should mostly learn as a set expression:

  • tenerle miedo a alguien/algo
  • tenerles miedo a...

Can I say mi prima tiene bastante miedo a las avispas instead?

Yes, absolutely.

That version is completely natural:

The version in your sentence uses les to refer back to las avispas, which avoids repeating the noun.

So both are possible:

  • Mi prima tiene bastante miedo a las avispas.
  • Mi prima les tiene bastante miedo.

You can even hear both together for emphasis or clarity:

  • Mi prima les tiene bastante miedo a las avispas.

What does bastante mean here?

Here bastante means quite, rather, or fairly.

So:

  • tener bastante miedo = to be quite afraid / fairly scared

It softens the statement a little compared with something stronger like:

  • mucho miedo = a lot of fear / very afraid

Compare:

  • Mi prima les tiene bastante miedo. = My cousin is quite afraid of them.
  • Mi prima les tiene mucho miedo. = My cousin is very afraid of them.

Why is bastante placed before miedo?

Because bastante is modifying the noun miedo.

  • bastante miedo = quite a lot of fear

This is the normal word order in Spanish:

  • mucho miedo
  • bastante miedo
  • demasiado miedo

So les tiene bastante miedo is the expected order.


Is acercaran the only correct imperfect subjunctive form here?

No. You can also say se acercasen.

Both are correct imperfect subjunctive forms:

  • Ojalá las avispas no se acercaran...
  • Ojalá las avispas no se acercasen...

In modern Spanish, both are grammatical. In everyday use, the -ra form is usually more common, so acercaran will often sound more natural to many speakers.


Why isn’t there a que after ojalá?

Because ojalá can be used with or without que.

So both are possible:

  • Ojalá las avispas no se acercaran a la comida.
  • Ojalá que las avispas no se acercaran a la comida.

The meaning does not really change. The version without que is very common.


Why is it porque and not por qué?

Because porque here means because and introduces the reason.

  • porque = because
  • por qué = why

So:

  • ..., porque mi prima les tiene bastante miedo.
    = ..., because my cousin is quite afraid of them.

If it were a question, then you would use por qué:

  • ¿Por qué les tiene miedo? = Why is she afraid of them?
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