Las abejas del jardín son importantes para las flores, aunque a veces no las soportamos cerca.

Elon.io is an online learning platform
We have an entire course teaching Spanish grammar and vocabulary.

Start learning Spanish now

Questions & Answers about Las abejas del jardín son importantes para las flores, aunque a veces no las soportamos cerca.

What does “del jardín” mean, and why is it del instead of de el or en el?

Del is the contraction of de + el. So:

  • de el jardíndel jardín

“Las abejas del jardín” literally means “the bees of the garden” (the bees that belong to / come from that garden).

You could also say:

  • Las abejas en el jardín = the bees in the garden (focused on their location)
  • Las abejas del jardín = the bees of the garden (they are associated with that garden, almost like “the garden’s bees”)

Both are possible, but del jardín feels a bit more like they’re “the garden’s bees,” not just any bees that happen to be there.

Why is it “son importantes” and not “están importantes”?

This is the ser vs. estar difference.

  • ser = essential, general, or lasting characteristic
  • estar = temporary state or condition

In “Las abejas del jardín son importantes para las flores”, we’re talking about a general, permanent role that bees have in relation to flowers (pollination, etc.). That’s a classic case for ser:

  • Las abejas son importantes. = Bees are important. (always true in general)

“Están importantes” is almost never used; it would sound wrong here.

Why do we say “para las flores” instead of “para flores” or “a las flores”?
  1. Why “para” and not “a” or “por”?

    • para often expresses benefit, purpose, or destination:
      • Es bueno para la salud. = It’s good for your health.
    • Here, bees are beneficial for the flowers, so para is right:
      • Son importantes para las flores. = They are important for the flowers.
  2. Why “las flores” and not just “flores”?

    In Spanish, when we talk about things in general, we often use the definite article:

    • Las abejas son importantes. = Bees are important.
    • Las flores necesitan agua. = Flowers need water.

    So “para las flores” can mean “for flowers (in general)”, not just specific flowers.

Why do we use “las abejas” and “las flores” when in English we’d just say “bees” and “flowers”?

Spanish usually uses a definite article when talking about categories or things in general, where English often leaves it out:

  • Las abejas son importantes. = Bees are important.
  • Los perros son fieles. = Dogs are loyal.
  • Las flores son bonitas. = Flowers are beautiful.

So:

  • Las abejas del jardín son importantes para las flores
    = “Bees in the garden are important for flowers,” in a general sense, but Spanish keeps las.
What does “soportar” mean here? I thought it meant “to support.”

This is a false friend.

  • English “support” = to back up, help, hold up
  • Spanish “soportar” = to tolerate, put up with, stand

So in this sentence:

  • no las soportamos ≈ “we can’t stand them” / “we can’t put up with them”

To say “support” (in the sense of helping someone), Spanish uses verbs like:

  • apoyar (to support a person, cause)
  • mantener / sostener (to support financially or physically)
What does the “las” in “no las soportamos” refer to?

Las is a direct object pronoun, feminine plural.

It stands for a feminine plural noun mentioned before:

  • Las abejas del jardín → feminine plural (las
    • abejas)

So:

  • no las soportamos = “we can’t stand them
  • las = the bees

It does not refer to las flores, because the whole second part is about our reaction to the bees being close. The logical and most recent feminine plural subject in context is las abejas.

Why is “las” placed before the verb in “no las soportamos” and not after?

In Spanish, object pronouns (like lo, la, los, las, me, te, nos) usually go:

  • before a conjugated verb:
    • No las soportamos. = We can’t stand them.
    • Lo veo. = I see him/it.

They can go after, attached to the verb, only in certain forms:

  • infinitives: soportarlas (to stand them)
  • gerunds: soportándolas (standing/putting up with them)
  • positive commands: ¡Sopórtalas! (Put up with them!)

But here we have a normal conjugated verb (soportamos), so the pronoun must go before:

  • No las soportamos cerca.
  • No soportamoslas cerca. ❌ (incorrect)
Why isn’t “nosotros” written before “soportamos”?

In Spanish, subject pronouns (yo, tú, él, nosotros, etc.) are often dropped, because the verb ending already tells you who the subject is:

  • soporto = I put up with
  • soportas = you put up with
  • soportamos = we put up with

So:

  • (Nosotros) no las soportamos cerca.
    Both versions are correct. The nosotros is understood from -amos, so you don’t need to say it unless you want to emphasize:

  • Nosotros no las soportamos, pero ellos sí.
    We can’t stand them, but they can.

Could I say “a veces no soportamos a las abejas cerca” instead of “no las soportamos cerca”? Is there a difference?

Yes, you can say it, and the meaning is very close.

  • No las soportamos cerca.
    = We can’t stand them when they’re close.
    (using the pronoun las, more compact, very natural)

  • No soportamos a las abejas cerca.
    = We can’t stand bees when they’re close.
    (repeating the whole noun)

Notes:

  • When the direct object is a specific group of people or animals, Spanish often uses the “a”:
    No soportamos a las abejas.
  • In everyday speech, both structures are used. The version with las avoids repeating las abejas.
Why is it “aunque” and not “pero”?

Both words introduce contrast, but in different ways:

  • pero = but (simple contrast between two statements)
  • aunque = although / even though (concession: “this is true, but despite that…”)

In the sentence:

  • Las abejas… son importantes para las flores, aunque a veces no las soportamos cerca.

We’re saying:

  1. Bees are important. (fact)
  2. Despite that, we sometimes can’t stand them close.

That “even though / despite the fact that” idea is exactly what aunque expresses.
With pero, it would sound more like just a simple “but” without that concessive nuance.

Why is it “aunque… no las soportamos” (indicative) and not “aunque… no las soportemos” (subjunctive)?

With aunque, Spanish can use either indicative or subjunctive, depending on the meaning.

  • Indicative (soportamos): a real, known fact

    • Aunque a veces no las soportamos cerca…
      = Even though (in fact) sometimes we can’t stand them close…
  • Subjunctive (soportemos): something hypothetical, unknown, or conceded as possible

    • Aunque a veces no las soportemos cerca…
      = Even if sometimes we might not stand them close… (more hypothetical)

In your sentence, we’re talking about a real, observed behavior (“we do sometimes not stand them”), so indicative (soportamos) is the natural choice.

What exactly is “cerca” here, and why don’t we say “cerca de nosotros”?

Cerca is an adverb meaning “near / close by”.

  • Están cerca. = They are nearby.
  • No te acerques, quédate cerca. = Don’t come closer, stay near.

In “no las soportamos cerca”, the full idea is:

  • no las soportamos (cuando están) cerca (de nosotros)
    = we can’t stand them when they are close (to us)

Spanish often omits obvious parts like “de nosotros” when the context makes it clear. It’s understood that “near” means “near us.” You can say “cerca de nosotros”, but you don’t have to.

Can “a veces” move around in the sentence? For example: “A veces no las soportamos cerca” vs “No las soportamos cerca a veces”?

Yes, “a veces” (sometimes) is fairly flexible:

  • A veces no las soportamos cerca. ✅ (very natural)
  • No las soportamos cerca a veces. ✅ (less common, but acceptable)
  • No, a veces, las soportamos cerca. ❌ (awkward word order)

The most natural positions are:

  • Al principio de la oración:
    A veces no las soportamos cerca.
  • Just before the main verb:
    No las soportamos a veces cerca. (possible, but not as usual)

The original:

  • aunque a veces no las soportamos cerca
    is perfectly natural and clear.
Why are “abejas” and “flores” both feminine (las abejas, las flores)? How do I know their gender?

In Spanish, every noun has grammatical gender (masculine or feminine), and it’s mostly arbitrary; you simply have to learn it with the word.

  • la abeja / las abejas (bee) → feminine
  • la flor / las flores (flower) → feminine

Some patterns help:

  • Words ending in -a are often feminine (la casa, la abeja), but there are exceptions.
  • Many words ending in -ción, -sión, -dad, -tad, -tud are feminine (la nación, la ciudad).

But “abeja” and “flor” are feminine simply by convention. When you learn new nouns, it’s best to memorize them with their article:

  • la abeja, la flor, el jardín, las flores, etc.