Haec stola carior est quam illa, sed mater eam emere vult.

Questions & Answers about Haec stola carior est quam illa, sed mater eam emere vult.

Why is haec used instead of hanc?

Because haec stola is the subject of est.

  • haec = nominative feminine singular
  • stola = nominative feminine singular

So haec stola means this dress as the thing being described: This dress is more expensive...

If it were the direct object, Latin would use hanc stolam instead.

What exactly is haec doing here?

Haec is a demonstrative determiner meaning this. It agrees with stola in:

  • gender: feminine
  • number: singular
  • case: nominative

So haec stola literally means this dress or this robe/gown, depending on context.

Why is carior used, and what form is it?

Carior is the comparative form of carus, which can mean dear or expensive. In this sentence it means more expensive.

It agrees with stola, so it is:

  • feminine
  • singular
  • nominative

Even though the form carior looks the same for masculine and feminine nominative singular, here it is feminine because it describes stola.

Why does Latin use quam here?

Quam means than in comparisons.

So:

  • carior est quam illa = is more expensive than that one

It connects the two things being compared:

  • haec stola = this dress
  • illa = that one
Why is it just illa and not illa stola?

Because Latin often leaves out a noun when it is obvious from context.

Here illa means that one, with stola understood. So:

  • haec stola ... quam illa
    = this dress ... than that one

This is very common in Latin. English does the same thing: we often say this dress is nicer than that one, not than that dress.

What case is illa after quam, and why?

Illa is nominative feminine singular.

That may seem surprising at first, but it makes sense because the comparison is really shorthand for something like:

  • Haec stola carior est quam illa stola est

So illa stands for that dress, and it matches the case of the thing it is being compared to. Since haec stola is nominative, illa is nominative too.

Why is eam used in the second part of the sentence?

Eam is the accusative feminine singular form of is, ea, id, and here it means it.

It refers back to stola, which is feminine singular. Since it is the direct object of emere (to buy), it must be accusative:

  • mater eam emere vult = mother wants to buy it

So:

  • ea would not work here, because that is nominative
  • eam is needed because the dress is the thing being bought
Why is emere an infinitive?

Because it depends on vult.

  • vult = wants
  • emere = to buy

Latin often uses a simple infinitive after verbs of wanting, being able, beginning, and so on. So:

  • mater eam emere vult
    = mother wants to buy it

Literally, mother it to buy wants.

What form is vult?

Vult is:

  • 3rd person singular
  • present tense
  • active voice
  • indicative mood

It comes from velle, meaning to want.

So mater ... vult means mother wants.

Why is mater not matrem?

Because mater is the subject of vult.

She is the one doing the wanting, so she must be in the nominative case:

  • mater = nominative, mother
  • matrem = accusative, mother as a direct object

Here the structure is:

  • mater = subject
  • eam = object
  • emere = infinitive
  • vult = main verb
Is the word order normal? Why is eam emere vult arranged that way?

Yes, it is perfectly normal Latin.

Latin word order is much freer than English word order because the endings show each word’s job. The phrase:

  • mater eam emere vult

could also appear as:

  • mater vult eam emere
  • eam mater emere vult
  • mater emere eam vult

with only slight differences in emphasis.

The given order is natural and clear. Latin often places the main verb toward the end, so vult at the end is very ordinary.

Could stola mean something other than dress?

Yes. Stola is a Roman garment, especially associated with women, so depending on context it might be translated as:

  • dress
  • robe
  • gown
  • sometimes simply left as stola

In beginner Latin, dress is often the most natural translation.

Why does Latin not need a separate word for one in that one?

Because demonstratives like illa can stand on their own.

English often says:

  • this one
  • that one

Latin can simply say:

  • haec
  • illa

when the noun is understood from context. So illa by itself can mean that one, here specifically that dress.

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