Nunc autem tabellarius renuntiat fratrem domum rediisse et matrem iam securam esse.

Questions & Answers about Nunc autem tabellarius renuntiat fratrem domum rediisse et matrem iam securam esse.

Why is fratrem in the accusative instead of the nominative?

Because after a verb like renuntiat (reports, announces), Latin often uses an accusative + infinitive construction for indirect statement.

So instead of saying something like he reports that the brother has returned, Latin says, more literally:

  • he reports the brother to have returned

That is why frater becomes fratrem. It is the subject of the infinitive rediisse, but in indirect statement that subject goes into the accusative.

The same thing happens with:

  • matrem ... esse = that the mother is ...

So both fratrem and matrem are accusative because they are the subjects of infinitives inside reported speech.

What exactly is rediisse?

Rediisse is the perfect active infinitive of redeo, redire (to return, to go back).

Its form comes from redisse / rediisse, with ii often appearing in forms of eo compounds.

In this sentence, fratrem domum rediisse means:

  • that the brother has returned home
  • or more literally, the brother to have returned home

Because it is a perfect infinitive, it shows action completed before the time of renuntiat.

So the sequence is:

  • first: the brother returned home
  • now: the messenger reports it
Why is esse used with matrem iam securam?

Esse is the infinitive to be, and it is needed because this is another indirect statement:

  • matrem iam securam esse = that the mother is now safe / calm / free from worry

Latin often includes esse explicitly, even where English may feel the adjective is enough.

Also notice that securam agrees with matrem:

  • matrem = feminine singular accusative
  • securam = feminine singular accusative

That agreement shows that securam describes matrem.

Why is it domum without a preposition?

Because domum is a special accusative form meaning home or to homeward destination, and Latin regularly uses it without a preposition after verbs of motion.

So:

  • domum redire = to return home

This is a very common idiom. English speakers often expect ad domum, but classical Latin normally just says domum.

This use is especially common with words like:

  • domum = home
  • names of towns and small islands, which also often take no preposition with motion toward them
What is the difference between nunc and autem here?

They do different jobs:

  • nunc = now
  • autem = however, but, moreover, or a mild contrast/transition word

Together, nunc autem means something like:

  • now, however
  • but now
  • now then

A learner should notice that autem is usually not placed first in its clause. It often comes in the second position or near the beginning.

So Nunc autem tabellarius renuntiat is perfectly normal Latin word order.

What does tabellarius mean here?

Tabellarius means messenger, letter-carrier, or postman/courier, depending on context.

It comes from tabella, a small writing tablet or letter. So a tabellarius is someone who carries written messages.

In this sentence, he is the person bringing the report:

  • tabellarius renuntiat = the messenger reports
Why are there two infinitive phrases after renuntiat?

Because renuntiat introduces reported information, and Latin can coordinate multiple pieces of reported content with et.

So the sentence has two linked indirect statements:

  • fratrem domum rediisse
  • et matrem iam securam esse

Together they mean:

  • that the brother has returned home and that the mother is now safe / reassured

Latin does not need to repeat renuntiat before the second part, because et simply joins the two reported statements.

How should I understand the time relationship in renuntiat ... rediisse ... esse?

This is a very important Latin point.

The main verb is:

  • renuntiat = he reports / he is reporting (present)

Then the infinitives show time relative to that main verb:

  • rediisse = perfect infinitive, so the returning happened before the reporting
  • esse = present infinitive, so the mother’s state is simultaneous with the reporting

So the sense is:

  • the brother had already returned
  • the mother is now safe / no longer worried

Latin infinitives in indirect statement do not directly show absolute tense the way English finite verbs do; they show time relative to the main verb.

Why is securam accusative too?

Because adjectives agree with the nouns they describe.

Here:

  • matrem is feminine singular accusative
  • so securam must also be feminine singular accusative

This is true even though securam is functioning as a predicate adjective with esse. In an accusative-and-infinitive construction, the predicate adjective matches the accusative subject:

  • matrem securam esse = the mother to be safe / unconcerned
What kind of word order is this sentence using?

It uses very natural Latin word order, which is more flexible than English.

A rough breakdown is:

  • Nunc autem = discourse markers at the front
  • tabellarius = subject
  • renuntiat = main verb
  • fratrem domum rediisse = first indirect statement
  • et matrem iam securam esse = second indirect statement

Latin often places the verb earlier or later depending on emphasis, rhythm, and style. Here the structure is quite clear:

  1. the sentence sets the scene: now, however
  2. it gives the speaker/source of information: the messenger
  3. it gives the act of reporting: reports
  4. it gives the content of the report

An English speaker may want a more rigid order, but Latin relies much more on endings than on position.

Does securam mean safe, calm, or no longer worried?

It can mean any of those, depending on context.

The basic idea of securus, secura, securum is free from care, without anxiety, untroubled. In some contexts it can also mean safe or secure.

So matrem iam securam esse could mean:

  • that the mother is now safe
  • that the mother is now calm
  • that the mother is no longer worried

If the broader story is about anxiety over the brother’s return, no longer worried or reassured may be the most natural interpretation.

Why doesn’t Latin use quod or another word for that here?

Because classical Latin usually expresses indirect statement not with a separate word meaning that, but with the accusative + infinitive construction.

So where English says:

  • the messenger reports that the brother has returned

Latin says:

  • tabellarius renuntiat fratrem ... rediisse

There is no separate that. Instead, the grammar itself signals reported speech:

  • accusative noun = subject of the reported statement
  • infinitive = verb of the reported statement

This is one of the most important differences between English and Latin syntax.

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