Multi cives ad contionem veniunt, quia oratorem clara voce loquentem audire volunt.

Questions & Answers about Multi cives ad contionem veniunt, quia oratorem clara voce loquentem audire volunt.

Why is it multi cives and not multos cives?

Because multi cives is the subject of veniunt.

  • multi = many
  • cives = citizens
  • veniunt = they come / are coming

Since the subject is nominative plural, both words must be nominative plural:

  • multi = nominative masculine plural
  • cives = nominative plural

If you said multos cives, that would be accusative plural, which would make them a direct object, not the subject.


Why does cives end in -es here?

Because civis, civis is a third-declension noun, and its nominative plural is cives.

So:

  • singular: civis = citizen
  • plural: cives = citizens

This form can be either nominative plural or accusative plural, so you tell its function from the sentence. Here it is nominative plural because it goes with veniunt as the subject.


Why is it ad contionem?

Because ad means to or toward, and it takes the accusative case.

  • contio, contionis = assembly, public meeting, gathering
  • accusative singular: contionem

So:

  • ad contionem = to the assembly / to the meeting

This is a very common pattern in Latin:

  • ad
    • accusative = motion toward something

What does contio mean exactly?

Contio usually means a public meeting, assembly, or gathering where someone speaks to the people.

It is not exactly the same as every possible English word like crowd, speech, or senate. In this sentence, it suggests a gathering where an orator addresses the citizens.

So ad contionem veniunt gives the sense that the citizens are coming to a public assembly, likely in order to hear a speech.


Why is veniunt plural?

Because its subject, multi cives, is plural.

  • venit = he/she/it comes
  • veniunt = they come

Latin verbs must agree with their subject in person and number, so since many citizens is plural, the verb must also be plural.


Why is oratorem in the accusative?

Because oratorem is the direct object of audire.

  • orator = speaker / orator
  • oratorem = accusative singular
  • audire = to hear

So the structure is:

  • oratorem audire volunt = they want to hear the speaker

That is why oratorem is not nominative.


Why is loquentem also accusative?

Because loquentem is a participle modifying oratorem, so it must agree with it.

  • oratorem = accusative singular masculine
  • loquentem = accusative singular masculine present participle

So loquentem means speaking, and it describes the speaker:

  • oratorem loquentem = the speaker speaking

Latin participles behave like adjectives, so they agree with the noun they describe in:

  • gender
  • number
  • case

Why use loquentem instead of just another finite verb?

Because Latin is expressing the idea the speaker speaking as part of what the citizens want to hear.

The structure is:

  • oratorem ... loquentem audire volunt
  • literally: they want to hear the speaker speaking

English often prefers smoother wording, such as:

  • they want to hear the speaker
  • they want to hear the speaker speaking
  • they want to hear the speaker as he speaks

The participle lets Latin pack that descriptive action neatly into the noun phrase.


What kind of participle is loquentem?

It is a present active participle from loquor, meaning speaking.

A few important points:

  • loquor is a deponent verb
  • deponent verbs look passive in form, but have active meaning
  • so loquentem means speaking, not being spoken

This is very common with deponent verbs in Latin. Even though loquor has passive-looking forms, its participle here has an active sense.


Why is it clara voce? What case is that?

Clara voce is in the ablative singular.

  • clara = ablative singular feminine
  • voce = ablative singular of vox, vocis = voice

This is an ablative phrase meaning something like:

  • with a clear voice
  • in a clear voice
  • sometimes, depending on context, in a loud voice

It is an example of the ablative of manner or a closely related use of the ablative.


Why is there no cum in clara voce?

Because Latin often omits cum with an ablative of manner when the noun has an adjective.

Compare the idea:

  • cum voce clara
  • clara voce

Both can mean with a clear voice, but Latin very often prefers the shorter form when an adjective is present.

So clara voce is completely normal Latin.


Does clara voce mean with a clear voice or with a loud voice?

It can suggest either, depending on context.

The adjective clarus can mean:

  • clear
  • distinct
  • bright
  • sometimes loud or ringing

With vox, the phrase often suggests a voice that is clear and audible, and in practice that may overlap with loud.

So a translator might choose:

  • with a clear voice
  • in a clear voice
  • in a loud voice

The best choice depends on the tone of the passage.


Why is quia followed by volunt in the indicative?

Because quia introduces the reason, and here the speaker is presenting that reason as a straightforward fact:

  • quia ... volunt = because ... they want

The indicative is normal when the clause states a real reason from the narrator’s point of view.

In some contexts Latin can use the subjunctive in causal clauses when the reason is presented as someone’s claimed or alleged reason, but that is not what is happening here.


How does audire volunt work? Is it literally they want to hear?

Yes. This is a very common Latin construction:

  • volunt = they want
  • audire = to hear

So:

  • audire volunt = they want to hear

Latin often uses an infinitive after verbs of wanting, being able, beginning, and so on.


Is the word order important here?

The word order is flexible, but not random.

The sentence is:

  • Multi cives ad contionem veniunt, quia oratorem clara voce loquentem audire volunt.

A few things are worth noticing:

  • multi cives comes first as the topic: many citizens
  • ad contionem comes before veniunt to show where they are coming
  • in the second clause, oratorem is followed by the phrase describing him: clara voce loquentem
  • audire volunt comes at the end, which is a very natural place for the main verbal idea in Latin

So the order helps highlight and group ideas, even though Latin relies more on endings than English does.


Why doesn’t Latin use the in phrases like the citizens or the speaker?

Because Classical Latin has no definite or indefinite article.

So:

  • cives can mean citizens or the citizens
  • oratorem can mean a speaker or the speaker

You decide from the context which English article to use. In this sentence, English usually wants:

  • many citizens
  • the assembly
  • the speaker

But Latin does not need separate words for the or a.


Could oratorem clara voce loquentem be translated more naturally than the speaker speaking with a clear voice?

Yes. The literal translation helps you see the grammar, but English often prefers smoother phrasing.

Possible natural translations include:

  • the speaker speaking in a clear voice
  • the speaker as he speaks in a clear voice
  • the speaker, speaking clearly
  • simply the speaker, if you do not want to keep the participle explicit

The Latin participle gives extra detail, but English does not always need to reproduce it in exactly the same way.

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