Custos in libra pondus argenti iterum ponit, ut omnes videant pretium nimium non esse.

Questions & Answers about Custos in libra pondus argenti iterum ponit, ut omnes videant pretium nimium non esse.

What form is custos, and what job is it doing in the sentence?

Custos is nominative singular, so it is the subject of ponit.

A few useful points:

  • It is a 3rd-declension noun.
  • Its basic meaning is guard, watchman, keeper, or attendant, depending on context.
  • Even though it ends in -os, it is not Greek here and not a different case; it is simply the normal nominative singular form of this noun.

So custos ... ponit means the guard/keeper places ...

What does in libra mean here, and why is libra in the ablative?

Here in libra means something like on the scale, in the balance, or in the weighing pan/instrument.

It uses the ablative because in with the ablative normally expresses location:

  • in + ablative = in/on somewhere
  • in + accusative = into/onto somewhere

So:

  • in libra = on/in the scale
  • not into the scale

Also, libra can mean a balance or scales, and Latin often uses the singular where English might naturally say the scales.

What exactly does pondus mean here?

Pondus literally means weight.

In this sentence, it could mean either:

  • the weight/amount of silver being weighed, or
  • a weight as an object placed on a scale

Because of ponit and in libra, many learners naturally understand it as a weight or the weighed amount being placed on the scale.

Grammatically, pondus is a neuter noun, and here it is the direct object of ponit.

Why is argenti genitive instead of argentum?

Argenti is genitive singular, and it depends on pondus.

This is a very common Latin pattern: a noun like pondus can take a genitive to show what the weight is of.

So:

  • pondus argenti = the weight of silver

This is similar to English a piece of gold, a quantity of water, the price of grain, and so on.

If Latin used argentum here instead, it would not express the same relationship as naturally.

Why does Latin use ut ... videant here instead of just an ordinary indicative verb?

Because this is a purpose clause.

  • ut
    • subjunctive often means so that, in order that
  • videant is present subjunctive

So:

  • ut omnes videant = so that all may see / in order that everyone may see

This tells us the purpose of the action in the main clause: the guard places the weight again so that people can see something.

Why is videant subjunctive, and why specifically present subjunctive?

It is subjunctive because it is in a purpose clause introduced by ut.

It is present subjunctive because the main verb is also present:

  • main verb: ponit = present
  • subordinate purpose verb: videant = present subjunctive

This follows the normal sequence of tenses in Latin. After a primary tense like ponit, Latin commonly uses the present subjunctive for action that is simultaneous with or subsequent to the main verb.

Why is omnes plural? English might say everyone.

Latin uses omnes = all people, so it is grammatically plural.

That is why the verb is also plural:

  • omnes videant = all may see

English often uses singular everyone, but Latin commonly uses plural expressions where English might prefer a singular collective idea.

So there is no problem here:

  • Latin: omnes
  • English meaning: everyone or all the people
How does pretium nimium non esse work grammatically?

This is an indirect statement after videant.

Latin often uses:

  • a verb of perceiving, knowing, saying, thinking, etc.
  • followed by accusative + infinitive

Here the structure is:

  • pretium = subject of the infinitive, in the accusative
  • nimium = predicate word agreeing with pretium
  • esse = infinitive
  • non = negation

So the clause means:

  • that the price is not too high
  • or more literally, that the price not to be excessive

Because pretium is neuter, its nominative and accusative forms are the same, so the accusative is not visually obvious.

Is nimium an adjective here or an adverb?

The best explanation here is that nimium is functioning as a predicate adjective agreeing with pretium.

So:

  • pretium = the price
  • nimium = too great / excessive
  • pretium nimium esse = the price to be too high/excessive

Since both words are neuter singular, the forms look the same in nominative and accusative.

Learners sometimes wonder whether nimium is adverbial because it can sometimes have adverb-like force in Latin. But in this sentence, it is most naturally understood as agreeing with pretium.

Why is it non esse and not esse non?

Because non normally comes before the word or phrase it negates.

Here it negates esse within the indirect statement:

  • pretium nimium non esse = that the price is not too high

Latin word order is flexible, but non esse is the normal and natural order.

Why is the word order so different from normal English word order?

Latin word order is much more flexible than English word order because Latin uses case endings to show grammatical function.

So Latin does not need to rely as heavily on fixed order to show:

  • subject
  • object
  • modifiers
  • subordinate structure

In this sentence:

  • Custos is clearly the subject because it is nominative
  • pondus is clearly the object of ponit
  • argenti clearly depends on pondus
  • ut omnes videant clearly begins a purpose clause
  • pretium nimium non esse is clearly the indirect statement inside that clause

The order can also add emphasis. For example:

  • iterum is placed near ponit to stress again
  • nimium non esse keeps the idea not too high together at the end

So the word order may feel unusual to an English speaker, but it is perfectly natural Latin.

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