Filius matri parere non vult, sed filia matri statim paret.

Breakdown of Filius matri parere non vult, sed filia matri statim paret.

mater
the mother
non
not
sed
but
filius
the son
filia
the daughter
velle
to want
statim
immediately
parere
to obey
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Questions & Answers about Filius matri parere non vult, sed filia matri statim paret.

Why is matri used instead of matrem?

Because parere takes the dative case, not a direct object in the accusative.

So:

  • matri = to the mother / for the mother (dative singular)
  • not matrem = mother as a direct object (accusative singular)

In idiomatic English we simply say obey the mother or obey his/her mother, but in Latin the verb pareo, parere is constructed with the dative: to obey someone.

So:

  • matri parere = to obey mother
  • literally, something like to be obedient to mother
Why is it parere in the first clause, but paret in the second?

Because the two clauses are built differently.

In the first clause:

  • vult = wants
  • after vult, Latin uses an infinitive
  • so parere means to obey

So:

  • Filius matri parere non vult = The son does not want to obey mother

In the second clause:

  • paret is a finite verb
  • it is the main verb of the clause
  • it means obeys / is obeying

So:

  • filia matri statim paret = the daughter obeys mother at once

A learner can think of it this way:

  • vult + infinitive = wants to ...
  • standalone paret = obeys
What case are filius, filia, and matri, and how do I know who is doing the action?

The endings tell you the job of each noun.

  • filius = nominative singular → subject → the son
  • filia = nominative singular → subject → the daughter
  • matri = dative singular → indirect object / object used with parereto mother

So the ones doing the action are:

  • filius in the first clause
  • filia in the second clause

And matri is the person being obeyed.

This is one of the big differences from English: Latin often shows meaning through endings rather than a fixed word order.

What tense are vult, parere, and paret?

They are all present-time forms, but not all the same kind of form.

  • vult = present indicative, he/she wants
  • parere = present active infinitive, to obey
  • paret = present indicative, he/she obeys

So the sentence describes a present situation:

  • the son does not want to obey
  • the daughter does obey, and she does so immediately
Why is non placed before vult?

Because it is negating the verb vult.

  • non vult = does not want

So the first clause means:

  • The son does not want to obey mother

Latin often places non before the word it most directly negates, and here that is the finite verb vult.

In practice, the whole idea becomes he does not want to obey, not just he wants not to obey as a sharply separated idea. English usually translates it naturally as does not want to obey.

Why doesn’t Latin say his mother or her mother here?

Because Latin often leaves that idea to context if it is obvious.

Here, with filius and filia, a learner naturally understands matri as their mother or his/her mother, depending on context.

Latin does have possessive words such as suus, sua, suum, and it could say something like matri suae if the writer wanted to make the possession explicit. But very often that is unnecessary.

So matri by itself is enough here.

What does sed mean, and why is it used here?

Sed means but.

It introduces a contrast:

  • The son does not want to obey mother
  • but the daughter obeys mother immediately

So sed marks a clear opposition between the behavior of the son and the behavior of the daughter.

What does statim do in the sentence?

Statim is an adverb meaning immediately, at once, or right away.

It modifies paret:

  • filia matri statim paret = the daughter obeys mother immediately

It helps strengthen the contrast:

  • the son is unwilling
  • the daughter obeys at once
Is the word order important here? Could Latin arrange these words differently?

Latin word order is more flexible than English because the noun endings and verb endings carry a lot of the grammar.

This sentence could be rearranged in various ways without changing the basic meaning, for example to emphasize different words. The current order is quite natural and clear:

  • Filius ... = topic of the first clause
  • matri parere = the action/relationship
  • non vult = the key point: he does not want to
  • sed filia = strong contrast
  • matri statim paret = what the daughter does

So the word order is not random, but it is also not as rigid as English word order.

Why is parere translated simply as obey, if it literally goes with a dative?

Because that is how English expresses the idea naturally.

Latin says:

  • alicui parere = to obey someone
  • literally, something like to be obedient to someone

But English does not usually say obey to someone. It just says obey someone.

So when translating, it is best to use normal English:

  • matri parere = to obey mother
  • not to obey to mother
Could the second clause have been filia matri statim parere vult instead?

Yes, but that would mean something different.

  • filia matri statim paret = the daughter obeys mother immediately
  • filia matri statim parere vult = the daughter wants to obey mother immediately

The actual sentence is stronger. It does not merely say that the daughter is willing; it says that she actually obeys.

That makes the contrast with the son sharper:

  • the son does not want to obey
  • the daughter does obey immediately