Discipulus dicit se librum veterem in bibliotheca relinquere velle.

Breakdown of Discipulus dicit se librum veterem in bibliotheca relinquere velle.

in
in
discipulus
the student
liber
the book
dicere
to say
velle
to want
vetus
old
bibliotheca
the library
se
himself
relinquere
to leave
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Questions & Answers about Discipulus dicit se librum veterem in bibliotheca relinquere velle.

Why does Latin use se here, and who does it refer to?

Se is the reflexive pronoun used in indirect statement, and it refers back to the subject of the reporting verb (dicit). So se = the student himself (not someone else).
If the speaker meant “he says that that other person wants…”, you’d typically see eum/eam/eos/eas instead.

What construction is dicit se ... velle? Why isn’t there an ut-clause?

This is an indirect statement (Latin: accusative + infinitive).

  • dicit = “he says” (reporting verb)
  • se (accusative subject of the infinitive)
  • velle (infinitive verb that carries the main reported idea: “to want”)
    Latin normally uses accusative + infinitive for statements after verbs like dico, puto, audio, video, etc., rather than an ut-clause.
Why is se in the accusative?

Because in an indirect statement, the “subject” of the reported clause is put in the accusative.
So in direct speech you’d have: (Ego) ... volo (“I want …”), but when reported after dicit, it becomes se ... velle (“that he wants …”).

Why are there two infinitives: relinquere and velle?

Because velle (“to want”) often takes a complementary infinitive to complete its meaning.

  • velle = “to want”
  • relinquere = what he wants to do: “to leave”
    So relinquere velle = “to want to leave (something).”
Why is librum veterem accusative?

Librum is the direct object of relinquere (“to leave a book”). Since relinquere is an active verb, its object is in the accusative.
Veterem agrees with librum in case (accusative), number (singular), and gender (masculine).

What case is in bibliotheca, and how do I know whether in takes accusative or ablative?

Here in bibliotheca is ablative: it means location, “in the library.”
Rule of thumb:

  • in + ablative = where (location)
  • in + accusative = where to (motion toward)
    So in bibliothecam would mean “into the library.”
Why is veterem before in bibliotheca? Does word order change the meaning?
Basic meaning stays the same, but word order can add emphasis and clarity. Here librum veterem stays together as one noun phrase (“the old book”), and then in bibliotheca adds where it will be left. Latin word order is flexible, but related words often “cling” together like this.
What tense is velle and relinquere—and how do we get the right time in English?

Both are present infinitives. In indirect statement, a present infinitive usually shows action contemporary with the main verb (dicit).
So it’s essentially “He says that he wants … (now)” and “(now) he is leaving / will leave …” depending on context—English often uses will with verbs of intention like “want.”

How would the sentence change if the leaving happened before the speaking?

You’d use a perfect infinitive to show prior time. For example:
Discipulus dicit se librum veterem in bibliotheca reliquisse.
= “The student says that he left the old book in the library.”

Why is there no expressed ego (or another pronoun) for the student?
Latin usually doesn’t need subject pronouns because the verb ending already indicates person/number. Here dicit already means “he says,” so adding a pronoun would be for contrast or emphasis.