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Servus aquam calidam ad cubiculum ferre non potest, quia fessus est.

Servus aquam calidam ad cubiculum ferre non potest, quia fessus est.
The servant cannot carry warm water to the bedroom, because he is tired.
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Questions & Answers about Servus aquam calidam ad cubiculum ferre non potest, quia fessus est.

Why is aquam calidam in the accusative?

Because it is the direct object of the action ferre (to carry).

  • aqua (water) is normally 1st declension, but here it appears as aquam = accusative singular.
  • calidam agrees with aquam in case, number, and gender: accusative singular feminine.
Why does Latin say ferre (an infinitive) instead of a finite verb like fert?

Because potest (he is able/can) commonly takes an infinitive to complete its meaning:

  • potest ferre = can carry / is able to carry
    So ferre is a complementary infinitive: it depends on potest.
What exactly does non potest mean, and why is non placed there?

non potest means cannot / is not able.
Latin usually puts non immediately before the word it negates; here it negates the whole verb idea potest (and therefore the ability to do ferre).

Why is ad cubiculum used, and why is cubiculum accusative?

ad means to, toward (often expressing motion to a destination). Prepositions like ad take the accusative, so:

  • cubiculum is accusative singular neuter after ad.
    So ad cubiculum = to the bedroom (i.e., toward/into that destination).
Could this sentence have used in cubiculum instead of ad cubiculum?

Yes, depending on nuance:

  • ad cubiculum emphasizes movement toward the room (to the door/area).
  • in cubiculum (with accusative) more strongly emphasizes movement into the room.
    Both can be translated to the bedroom, but Latin can be a bit more specific about the endpoint.
Why is the adjective placed after the noun: aquam calidam?

Latin can place adjectives before or after nouns. Often:

  • adjective after noun (aquam calidam) can sound neutral/descriptive: hot water.
  • adjective before noun (calidam aquam) can add emphasis: hot (as opposed to cold) water.
    Both are grammatical; word order is flexible and can reflect emphasis.
What is the role of quia, and why is the verb in that clause est (indicative)?

quia means because and typically introduces a straightforward reason stated as a fact, so it normally takes the indicative:

  • quia fessus est = because he is tired.
Why does Latin say fessus est instead of something like a present tense adjective alone?

Latin commonly expresses “to be + adjective” with sum:

  • fessus = tired (masculine singular, agreeing with servus)
  • est = is
    So fessus est literally he is tired.
Is fessus est a perfect tense (since it looks like “been tired”)?

It looks like a perfect passive form, but here it functions as a predicate adjective: fessus is effectively an adjective meaning tired, and est is simply is.
So in normal translation it’s present-state: he is tired, not “he has been tired.”

Why does Latin include the subject servus when the verb ending already shows “he”?

Latin verbs can often omit the subject pronoun, but using the noun servus is useful when:

  • you want to introduce or clarify who he is (a slave/servant), or
  • you want emphasis/contrast (e.g., the servant can’t, someone else might).
    So Servus ... non potest is a clear, explicit subject + verb structure.