Η συνάδελφός μου παρουσιάζει τις ίδιες ιδέες, αλλά προσθέτει και οδηγίες για τους πεζούς και τα ποδήλατα.

Breakdown of Η συνάδελφός μου παρουσιάζει τις ίδιες ιδέες, αλλά προσθέτει και οδηγίες για τους πεζούς και τα ποδήλατα.

και
and
μου
my
αλλά
but
για
for
ίδιος
same
η ιδέα
the idea
και
also
η συνάδελφος
the female colleague
η οδηγία
the instruction
προσθέτω
to add
το ποδήλατο
the bicycle
ο πεζός
the pedestrian
παρουσιάζω
to present
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Questions & Answers about Η συνάδελφός μου παρουσιάζει τις ίδιες ιδέες, αλλά προσθέτει και οδηγίες για τους πεζούς και τα ποδήλατα.

Why is συνάδελφός feminine here when it ends in -ος, which I thought was a masculine ending?

Greek has some common gender nouns that can be both masculine and feminine, depending on the article:

  • ο συνάδελφος = the (male) colleague
  • η συνάδελφος = the (female) colleague

The noun itself does not change form; only the article (and any adjectives) show whether it is masculine or feminine.

So in the sentence, η συνάδελφός μου clearly refers to a female colleague because of the feminine article η.

Why does συνάδελφός have the accent on the last syllable here?

The basic form is η συνάδελφος (accent on νά).

When you add a clitic like μου after it (a short unstressed word such as μου, σου, του), an extra accent is added to the noun if the main stress is not already on the last syllable.

So:

  • η συνάδελφος
  • η συνάδελφός μου (extra accent on the last syllable because of μου)

This is a standard rule: when a word with stress on the third syllable from the end takes an enclitic, an extra accent falls on the last syllable.

Why is the possessive μου placed after the noun (η συνάδελφός μου) and not before it, like in English?

In Greek, short possessive pronouns (μου, σου, του, της, μας, σας, τους) normally come after the noun:

  • το βιβλίο μου = my book
  • η μητέρα σου = your mother
  • η συνάδελφός μου = my colleague

If you want to emphasize the owner more strongly, you can use full forms like δικός μου, which can come before or after, but the normal, neutral way with μου is to put it after the noun.

Why is it τις ίδιες ιδέες and not οι ίδιες ιδέες?

Τις ίδιες ιδέες is in the accusative plural, because it is the direct object of the verb παρουσιάζει:

  • παρουσιάζει τι;τις ίδιες ιδέες (what does she present?)

Forms:

  • η ίδια ιδέα (nom. sg.)
  • οι ίδιες ιδέες (nom. pl.) → used for subjects
  • τις ίδιες ιδέες (acc. pl.) → used for direct objects

So here we use τις (fem. acc. pl.), not οι (fem. nom. pl.), because the ideas are not the subject, they are what is being presented.

How do τις, ίδιες, and ιδέες agree with each other?

They all match in gender, number, and case:

  • τις – feminine, plural, accusative (article)
  • ίδιες – feminine, plural, accusative (adjective)
  • ιδέες – feminine, plural, accusative (noun)

In Greek, the article, adjective, and noun must agree in gender, number, and case, so all three appear in the same form here.

What is the nuance of παρουσιάζει and προσθέτει in the present tense here? Is it like English “presents” vs “is presenting”?

Modern Greek has only one present tense form for each verb. Παρουσιάζει and προσθέτει can cover both:

  • she presents / she is presenting
  • she adds / she is adding

Context usually decides which English present you choose. In this sentence, we understand it as a general or repeated action (what she typically does), so it is naturally translated as:

  • My colleague presents the same ideas, but she also adds instructions…

Greek doesn’t force you to choose between simple and continuous in the present; that distinction is mostly an English issue.

What is the role of αλλά in the sentence, and how is it different from όμως?

Αλλά is a conjunction meaning but; it connects two clauses and contrasts them:

  • …παρουσιάζει τις ίδιες ιδέες, αλλά προσθέτει…
    = …she presents the same ideas, but she adds…

Όμως more often behaves like however / though and is more flexible in position:

  • Παρουσιάζει τις ίδιες ιδέες. Όμως, προσθέτει οδηγίες…
  • Παρουσιάζει όμως και οδηγίες…

In this particular sentence, αλλά is the most natural choice because it directly joins the two clauses as a clear contrast.

Why is και used in προσθέτει και οδηγίες? Does it just mean and here?

Here και means also / as well, not simply and between two equal items.

Structure:

  • παρουσιάζει τις ίδιες ιδέες, αλλά προσθέτει και οδηγίες…
    → she presents the same ideas, but (she) also adds instructions…

You could rephrase it as:

  • αλλά προσθέτει επίσης οδηγίες…
    (επίσης = also)

So this και is an additive particle: it emphasizes that instructions are in addition to the ideas already mentioned.

Why do we use για with the accusative (για τους πεζούς, για τα ποδήλατα)?

The preposition για (for, about) is normally followed by the accusative case in Modern Greek.

So:

  • για τον πεζό (sg. masc. acc.)
  • για τους πεζούς (pl. masc. acc.)
  • για το ποδήλατο (sg. neut. acc.)
  • για τα ποδήλατα (pl. neut. acc.)

In the sentence:

  • για τους πεζούς και τα ποδήλατα
    = for pedestrians and bicycles

Both πεζούς and ποδήλατα are in the accusative because they depend on για.

Why is it τους πεζούς but τα ποδήλατα? Why different articles and endings?

Because they are different genders:

  • ο πεζός (masc. sing.) → οι πεζοί (nom. pl.) → τους πεζούς (acc. pl.)
  • το ποδήλατο (neut. sing.) → τα ποδήλατα (nom./acc. pl.)

So:

  • τους = masculine plural accusative article
  • τα = neuter plural nominative/accusative article

In the phrase για τους πεζούς και τα ποδήλατα, both are accusative plural, but πεζούς is masculine and ποδήλατα is neuter, so they take different articles and endings.

Could we say για πεζούς και ποδήλατα without the articles? What would change?

Yes, για πεζούς και ποδήλατα is grammatically correct.

Difference in nuance:

  • για τους πεζούς και τα ποδήλατα
    → sounds a bit more specific or generic‑definite, like “for the pedestrians and the bicycles” as categories that you have in mind (e.g., official planning, regulations).

  • για πεζούς και ποδήλατα
    → more indefinite / general, like “for pedestrians and bicycles” in a looser, less categorized sense.

In many contexts the difference is subtle, and both could be translated the same way in English.

Why is οδηγίες in the plural? Does the singular οδηγία exist?

Yes, the singular οδηγία exists:

  • η οδηγία – instruction, guideline
  • οι οδηγίες – instructions, guidelines

In practice, οδηγίες is very often used in the plural, much like English instructions / directions:

  • οδηγίες χρήσης – instructions for use
  • οδηγίες για τους πεζούς – instructions for pedestrians

In this sentence, it means she adds a set of instructions, which is naturally expressed in the plural in Greek.