من قرارداد را دوباره خواندم تا بعدا از صاحبخانه سوالی نداشته باشم.

Breakdown of من قرارداد را دوباره خواندم تا بعدا از صاحبخانه سوالی نداشته باشم.

من
I
بودن
to be
نداشتن
to not have
را
(direct object marker)
از
from
سوال
question
خواندن
to read
بعدا
later
دوباره
again
تا
so that
صاحبخانه
landlord
قرارداد
contract

Questions & Answers about من قرارداد را دوباره خواندم تا بعدا از صاحبخانه سوالی نداشته باشم.

Why is را used after قرارداد?

را marks a specific direct object. Here, قرارداد را means the contract as a definite, known thing.

So:

  • قرارداد = contract
  • قرارداد را = the contract

In English, definiteness is often shown with the. In Persian, را helps show that the object is specific.

Is من necessary here?

Not necessarily. Persian often drops subject pronouns because the verb ending already shows the subject.

  • خواندم already means I read
  • so من is optional

The speaker may include من for emphasis, clarity, or contrast. Without it, the sentence would still be natural:

قرارداد را دوباره خواندم تا بعدا از صاحبخانه سوالی نداشته باشم.

What does دوباره mean, and where does it usually go?

دوباره means again.

In this sentence, it comes before the verb:

  • قرارداد را دوباره خواندم = I read the contract again

That is a very normal position in Persian. Adverbs like دوباره often appear before the verb or after the object.

What form is خواندم?

خواندم is the simple past, first person singular, from خواندن (to read).

Breakdown:

  • خواند- = past stem
  • = I

So خواندم = I read / I did read

In context, it means I read.

What does تا do in this sentence?

Here تا means so that or in order that. It introduces a clause of purpose.

So the sentence structure is:

  • I read the contract again
  • so that later I would not have any questions for the landlord

In Persian, تا is very commonly used to express purpose.

Why is the verb after تا نداشته باشم and not a simple past form?

After تا in a purpose clause, Persian usually uses the subjunctive structure.

Here:

  • داشته باشم = I may have / I would have
  • نداشته باشم = I may not have / I would not have

This is not just a plain present tense. It is the normal form used after تا to express intention, aim, or desired result.

So:

  • تا ... نداشته باشم = so that I do not / so that I won’t have
Why does Persian use سوالی نداشته باشم instead of something more like not ask a question?

Persian often expresses this idea as to have a question rather than to ask a question.

  • سوالی داشتن = to have a question
  • از کسی سوال داشتن = to have a question for someone / about something with someone

So از صاحبخانه سوالی نداشته باشم literally means something like I not have any question for the landlord.

This sounds natural in Persian, even though English more often says so I won’t need to ask the landlord anything or so I won’t have any questions for the landlord.

Why is it سوالی and not just سوال?

In negative sentences, Persian often uses an indefinite noun with to mean any.

So:

  • سوالی نداشته باشم = I don’t have any question / I won’t have any questions

This often gives an any/some sense, especially in negatives and questions.

Compare:

  • سوال دارم = I have a question / questions
  • سوالی ندارم = I don’t have any questions
Why is there a ن at the beginning of نداشته باشم?

That نـ is the negative marker.

  • داشته باشم = I have / I may have
  • نداشته باشم = I do not have / I may not have

In Persian, negation is usually formed by adding نـ before the verb complex.

Why does the sentence say از صاحبخانه? Why از?

With سوال داشتن or سوال کردن, Persian often uses از for the person you ask or would ask.

So:

  • از صاحبخانه سوالی داشته باشم = to have a question for the landlord / to ask the landlord something

Literally, از often corresponds to from, but in this kind of expression it is best understood as part of the Persian pattern:

  • از کسی سوال داشتن
  • از کسی سوال کردن

So do not translate it too mechanically word-for-word.

Could this sentence also use بپرسم instead of سوالی نداشته باشم?

Yes, a very natural alternative would be:

من قرارداد را دوباره خواندم تا بعدا از صاحبخانه چیزی نپرسم.

That means I read the contract again so that I wouldn’t ask the landlord anything later.

The original sentence focuses on not having questions. The alternative focuses on not asking.

Both are natural, but the nuance is slightly different.

What is the role of بعدا in the sentence?

بعدا means later.

It tells you when the possible questions would come up:

  • تا بعدا ... نداشته باشم = so that later I won’t have...

It belongs to the purpose clause, not the first clause. In other words, the speaker read the contract again now, with the goal of not having questions later.

Is the word order normal Persian word order?

Yes. It follows a very normal Persian pattern:

  • subject: من
  • object + را: قرارداد را
  • adverb: دوباره
  • main verb: خواندم
  • purpose marker: تا
  • time adverb: بعدا
  • prepositional phrase: از صاحبخانه
  • object: سوالی
  • verb: نداشته باشم

Persian is generally SOV: subject–object–verb, and the verb usually comes at the end of its clause.

Is صاحبخانه exactly landlord?

Usually, yes. صاحبخانه commonly means landlord or landlady, depending on context. Persian does not mark gender in this noun.

Literally it is something like owner of the house/home, but in everyday use it normally refers to the person renting the property to you.

How would this sentence sound in more natural spoken Persian?

In speech, the overall structure stays the same, but pronunciation may be a bit more relaxed. For example:

  • بعدا may sound like بعداً / بعدن
  • صاحبخانه may be pronounced smoothly as one unit
  • سوالی نداشته باشم may sound slightly compressed in fast speech

A common spoken-style version could still be essentially the same:

قرارداد رو دوباره خوندم تا بعدا از صاحبخونه سوالی نداشته باشم.

Main spoken changes:

  • رارو
  • خواندمخوندم
  • صاحبخانهصاحبخونه

These are pronunciation/colloquial-form differences, not major grammar changes.

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