او بدون اینکه غذا را بجود، آن را می‌خورد.

Questions & Answers about او بدون اینکه غذا را بجود، آن را می‌خورد.

Why is the verb bejvad in the subjunctive form here?
The conjunction bedun-e inke (without) requires the verb that follows it to be in the present subjunctive. This is because 'without doing something' describes a condition or an action that did not actually happen.
How is the verb bejvad formed from its infinitive?
The infinitive for 'to chew' is javidan, and its present stem is jav. To form the present subjunctive for 'he/she', we add the subjunctive prefix be- and the third-person singular ending -ad, resulting in bejavad (which is often shortened in spoken Farsi to bejvad).
Why does the sentence use both ghazaa raa and aan raa?
Each clause in Farsi generally needs its own direct object. ghazaa raa (the food) is the specific direct object of the first verb, 'chewing'. In the second clause, aan raa (it) is used as a pronoun to refer back to the food, acting as the direct object for the main verb, mikhorad (eats).
If we changed this sentence to the past tense ('He ate his food without chewing it'), would bejvad also change to the past tense?
No, it stays exactly the same! The conjunction bedun-e inke almost always takes the present subjunctive even if the main verb of the sentence is in the past tense. You would only change the main verb to khord (ate), while keeping bejvad exactly as it is.

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