Si hay un empate, devolverán las entradas o podremos usarlas en otro juego.

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Questions & Answers about Si hay un empate, devolverán las entradas o podremos usarlas en otro juego.

Why is it “Si hay un empate” and not something like “Si habrá un empate” with the future tense?

In Spanish, after si introducing a real or possible condition about the future, you normally use the present indicative, not the future.

Pattern:

  • Si + present indicative, future
    • Si hay un empate, devolverán las entradas.
    • If there is a tie, they will refund the tickets.

Using “si habrá un empate” is generally wrong in this conditional sense. “Habrá” can appear after si only in very specific, more speculative meanings (like “I don’t know if there will be…”), but not to form this kind of “if X happens, Y will happen” structure.

So:

  • ✅ Si hay un empate, devolverán las entradas.
  • ❌ Si habrá un empate, devolverán las entradas.
Why is it “hay” (indicative) and not “haya” (subjunctive)? The tie is only hypothetical, right?

Yes, the tie is hypothetical, but Spanish handles this type of condition with the indicative in the si-clause when it’s a real and possible condition about the future.

Compare:

  • Real / likely condition (present indicative + future):

    • Si hay un empate, devolverán las entradas.
      If there is a tie, they will refund the tickets.
  • Unreal / less likely / contrary-to-fact (imperfect subjunctive + conditional):

    • Si hubiera un empate, devolverían las entradas.
      If there were a tie, they would refund the tickets.

So “hay” (indicative) is correct here because the speaker is talking about a realistic possible scenario, not an unlikely or imaginary one.

What does “empate” mean exactly, and is it always masculine? Is there a verb form?

“Empate” is a masculine noun that means “tie” or “draw” (in the sense of equal score):

  • el empate = the tie / the draw
  • un empate = a tie / a draw

It’s always masculine:

  • ✅ el empate
  • ❌ la empate

There is a related verb: empatar = to tie (a game), to draw:

  • El partido terminó en empate.
    The game ended in a tie.

  • Los equipos empataron 2 a 2.
    The teams tied 2–2.

In your sentence, “hay un empate” literally means “there is a tie.”

Who is the subject of “devolverán”? Why is there no pronoun like ellos?

In Spanish, subject pronouns (yo, tú, él, ella, nosotros, ellos, etc.) are usually dropped because the verb ending already tells you the subject.

  • devolverán is 3rd person plural, future of devolver.
    So the subject is they (whoever “they” are in the context: the organizers, the ticket office, the team, etc.).

You could say:

  • Ellos devolverán las entradas.

But it’s not necessary unless you want to emphasize they specifically (maybe to contrast with we or you). The subject is understood from the verb ending.

Why is it “devolverán” and not something like “van a devolver”?

Both are grammatically correct and very common in Spanish:

  • Simple future:
    • devolverán las entradas → they will refund the tickets
  • Periphrastic future (ir + a + infinitive):
    • van a devolver las entradas → they are going to refund the tickets

Differences:

  • In everyday speech, “van a devolver” is extremely common.
  • “devolverán” sounds a bit more formal, neutral, or written-style, and it can also suggest a more definite or rule-like statement (like an official policy).

In this sentence, using “devolverán” fits the idea of a rule: If there is a tie, they will (as a policy) refund the tickets…

What exactly does “las entradas” mean here? Why not “boletos”?

In this context, “las entradas” means “the tickets” (for a game, event, etc.).

  • entrada = ticket (Spain; also understood in much of Latin America)
  • boleto / ticket = ticket (especially common in many Latin American countries)

In Latin America:

  • You’ll hear boleto(s) very often for tickets.
  • entrada(s) is also understood and used, especially in some countries, but can also mean “entrance” or in restaurants “starter/appetizer.”

So in many parts of Latin America, people might more naturally say:

  • devolverán los boletos
    instead of
  • devolverán las entradas

But “las entradas” is still correct Spanish and perfectly clear in a ticketing context.

Why “las” in “las entradas” and “usarlas”? What is “las” doing at the end of “usarlas”?

“las” is a feminine plural direct object pronoun, referring back to “las entradas” (the tickets).

In the first part:

  • devolverán las entradas
    They will refund the tickets.
    (las entradas is the noun direct object.)

In the second part:

  • podremos usarlas en otro juego
    we will be able to use them in another game.

Here:

  • usar = to use
  • las = them (feminine plural, referring to las entradas)
  • usarlas = to use them

In Spanish, with an infinitive (usar), you can attach the pronoun to the end:

  • usar + las → usarlas

So “usarlas” literally = “to use them”. The las replaces las entradas in that clause.

Could I also say “las podremos usar” instead of “podremos usarlas”? Is one more correct?

Yes, you can absolutely say:

  • Podremos usarlas en otro juego.
  • Las podremos usar en otro juego.

Both are 100% correct.

Pronoun placement rules with one conjugated verb (podremos) plus an infinitive (usar):

  • You can place the pronoun before the conjugated verb:
    • Las podremos usar.
  • Or attached to the infinitive:
    • Podremos usarlas.

There is no real difference in meaning; it’s mostly stylistic/rhythmic. Both orders are common in everyday Spanish.

Why is it “podremos” (future) and not “podríamos” (conditional)? What’s the difference?
  • podremos = we will be able to (simple future, more definite)
  • podríamos = we could / we would be able to (conditional, more hypothetical or polite)

In your sentence:

  • podremos usarlas en otro juego
    We will be able to use them in another game.
    → It’s presented as a clear, normal alternative option.

If you said:

  • podríamos usarlas en otro juego
    We could use them in another game.
    → Sounds more tentative or like a suggestion, not a set policy.

Given the context (likely an official rule about tickets), “podremos” is more natural because it describes what will happen / what we are allowed to do, not just a possible suggestion.

Why is the preposition “en” used in “en otro juego”? Could I say “para otro juego” instead?

“En otro juego” literally means “in another game” (or “for another game,” from a functional point of view).

  • usar algo en un juego = use something in a game.
  • So usarlas en otro juego = use them (the tickets) at another game.

You can say “para otro juego” in some contexts:

  • Son válidas para otro juego.
    They are valid for another game.

Difference in nuance:

  • en otro juego focuses on the occasion/event where you will use them.
  • para otro juego often feels like “intended for / valid for another game.”

In many real-world ticketing contexts, both might be heard, but here “en otro juego” is perfectly natural and common: you will use the tickets at another game.

Is “juego” the usual word for a sports match in Latin America? What about “partido”?

Both exist, but “partido” is more standard for an organized sports match:

  • un partido de fútbol = a soccer match
  • un juego de béisbol or un partido de béisbol = a baseball game

Usage varies by sport and country:

  • For many sports (especially soccer), “partido” is the normal term.
  • For some sports like baseball, “juego” is very common, especially in parts of Latin America where baseball is popular.

Your sentence:

  • …podremos usarlas en otro juego.

In Latin American Spanish, especially in places where “game” is commonly juego (e.g., baseball), this is very natural. You could also hear:

  • …en otro partido.

Both are understandable; preference depends on country and sport.

Why is there a comma after “Si hay un empate”? Is it required?

Yes, when a si-clause (conditional clause) comes at the beginning of the sentence, Spanish normally uses a comma to separate it from the main clause:

  • Si hay un empate, devolverán las entradas…
  • Si llueve, no saldremos.

If the order is reversed (main clause first), the comma is often omitted:

  • Devolverán las entradas si hay un empate.
  • No saldremos si llueve.

So in your sentence, the comma after “Si hay un empate” is standard and correct punctuation.