Breakdown of Multi cives arbitrantur bonam rem publicam sine iustitia servari non posse.
Questions & Answers about Multi cives arbitrantur bonam rem publicam sine iustitia servari non posse.
Why is bonam rem publicam in the accusative instead of bona res publica?
Because this sentence uses indirect statement after arbitrantur (they think / they believe).
In Latin, after verbs of thinking, saying, knowing, perceiving, and so on, English often uses that-clauses, but Latin usually uses:
- accusative subject
- infinitive
So in:
Multi cives arbitrantur bonam rem publicam sine iustitia servari non posse
the part after arbitrantur is an indirect statement:
- bonam rem publicam = the subject of the indirect statement, so it goes into the accusative
- servari non posse = the infinitive part
If this were an ordinary main clause, you would expect bona res publica. But inside indirect statement, it becomes bonam rem publicam.
What exactly is arbitrantur?
Arbitrantur is the 3rd person plural present indicative of arbitror, arbitrari, arbitratus sum.
It means:
- they think
- they judge
- they consider
A very important point: arbitror is a deponent verb. That means it has passive forms but an active meaning.
So although arbitrantur looks passive, it actually means they think, not they are thought.
Why does arbitrantur look passive if the meaning is active?
Because arbitror is a deponent verb.
Deponent verbs are a special group in Latin:
- they use passive-looking forms
- but they have active meanings
So:
- arbitror = I think
- arbitraris = you think
- arbitrantur = they think
This is something English speakers often have to get used to, because English has nothing quite like it.
How do we know multi cives is the subject of the whole sentence?
We know this from both form and structure.
- Multi cives is nominative plural: many citizens
- arbitrantur is 3rd person plural: they think
So multi cives matches arbitrantur as the main subject.
Then, after arbitrantur, Latin normally uses indirect statement. That means the next noun phrase functioning as the subject of the thought will be in the accusative, which is exactly what we get with bonam rem publicam.
So the structure is:
- Multi cives = main subject
- arbitrantur = main verb
- bonam rem publicam sine iustitia servari non posse = what they think
What is going on in servari non posse?
This is the infinitive part of the indirect statement.
Break it down:
- servari = to be preserved / to be maintained
(present passive infinitive of servo) - non posse = not to be able
Together:
- servari non posse = not to be able to be preserved
- more natural English: cannot be preserved
So Latin expresses the idea literally as a good state not to be able to be preserved without justice.
Why is it servari and not servare?
Because the meaning is to be preserved, not to preserve.
- servare = active infinitive = to preserve
- servari = passive infinitive = to be preserved
In this sentence, the good state is receiving the action. It is the thing being preserved. So Latin needs the passive infinitive:
- bonam rem publicam ... servari = that a good state is preserved / can be preserved
But since the sentence says it cannot be preserved, we get:
- bonam rem publicam ... servari non posse
Why is non placed with posse rather than with servari?
Because the idea is cannot be preserved, not can fail to be preserved.
Latin places non before the word it most directly negates. Here it negates posse:
- non posse = not to be able
So:
- servari non posse = not to be able to be preserved
- natural English: cannot be preserved
If you changed the negation, the meaning could shift. Latin word order is flexible, but here the standard idea is simply cannot be preserved.
Why is sine iustitia in the ablative?
Because sine is a preposition that takes the ablative.
So:
- sine = without
- iustitia = ablative singular of iustitia, justice
Together:
- sine iustitia = without justice
This is just a standard prepositional rule you have to learn with the preposition.
What does res publica literally mean, and why is it split into rem publicam here?
Res publica literally means public thing or public affair, but in normal usage it means something like:
- the state
- the commonwealth
- the republic
In dictionaries you often see the nominative form:
- res publica
But here the phrase is in the accusative singular, so both words change:
- res → rem
- publica → publicam
So:
- res publica = nominative
- rem publicam = accusative
And because bonam modifies it too, we get:
- bonam rem publicam = a good state / a good republic
Why is bonam separated from publicam? Do the adjectives have to stay next to their nouns?
Latin word order is much freer than English word order.
Here:
- bonam modifies rem publicam
- publicam also modifies rem
Even though English usually keeps modifiers tightly together, Latin can separate related words more easily because the endings show the relationships.
In bonam rem publicam, all three words are:
- feminine
- singular
- accusative
So the grammar makes the connection clear.
Latin authors often vary word order for emphasis, rhythm, or style. In this sentence, the phrase still hangs together clearly because of the matching endings.
Is cives nominative or accusative? How can we tell?
By itself, cives could be either nominative plural or accusative plural. The form is the same.
So how do we know it is nominative here?
Because of the sentence structure:
- multi cives fits naturally as the subject of arbitrantur
- arbitrantur needs a plural subject
- after arbitrantur, Latin normally uses an indirect statement, and that indirect statement already has its own accusative subject: bonam rem publicam
So context tells us that cives must be nominative here.
This is very common in Latin: sometimes the form alone is ambiguous, but the syntax makes the function clear.
Why doesn’t Latin use a word for that, as in Many citizens think that...?
Because Latin usually does not use a that-clause after verbs like think, say, know, hear, and so on.
Instead, it prefers indirect statement:
- accusative subject
- infinitive
So English says:
- Many citizens think that a good state cannot be preserved without justice
But Latin says, more literally:
- Many citizens think a good state without justice not to be able to be preserved
That sounds strange in English, but it is completely normal in Latin.
What tense is the infinitive idea expressing? Does servari non posse mean present time or future time?
Here the infinitives are present infinitives:
- servari = present passive infinitive
- posse = present infinitive
In indirect statement, the tense of the infinitive is relative to the main verb, not absolute in the same way as in English.
The present infinitive usually shows action happening at the same time as the main verb.
So the sense is:
- Many citizens think that a good state cannot be preserved without justice
That is, at the time they think this, they consider it generally true.
Could bonam rem publicam mean the good republic instead of a good republic?
Yes. Latin has no articles.
So bonam rem publicam could, depending on context, be translated as:
- a good republic
- the good republic
- a good state
- the good state
English has to choose a or the, but Latin leaves that to the context.
In a general moral or political statement like this, English often uses a good state or a good republic.
What is the basic grammatical skeleton of the whole sentence?
A helpful way to see it is:
- Multi cives = subject
- arbitrantur = main verb
- bonam rem publicam ... servari non posse = indirect statement
And inside the indirect statement:
- bonam rem publicam = accusative subject
- sine iustitia = prepositional phrase
- servari non posse = infinitive phrase
So the whole sentence is built like this:
Many citizens + think + [that] a good state cannot be preserved without justice.
That is the key structure to recognize.
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