Learn Hardcore Latin: Puer fessus est, tamen ad scholam currit. - The tired boy is tired, yet he runs to the school.

Latin word order is much freer than English. The most common “neutral” order in Latin is often Subject – (Object) – Verb, so putting est (the verb “is”) at the end is completely normal.

Puer fessus est literally has:

puer = subject (the boy)
fessus = predicate adjective (tired)
est = verb (is)

You could say puer est fessus, and it would still be correct Latin, just with a slightly different emphasis. But puer fessus est is perfectly standard and very natural.

Why is fessus in that exact form? Why not fessum or fessa?

Fessus is an adjective meaning “tired”. In Latin, adjectives must agree with the nouns they describe in:

gender (masculine / feminine / neuter),
number (singular / plural),
case (nominative, accusative, etc.).

Puer (boy) is:

masculine,
singular,
nominative (subject of the verb).

So the adjective must also be:

masculine, singular, nominative → fessus.

Other forms:

fessa = feminine nominative singular (for a girl: puella fessa est – “the girl is tired”),
fessum = neuter nominative/accusative singular or masculine accusative singular.

Why is puer in that form and not something like puerum?

Puer is in the nominative case, which is used mostly for the subject of a sentence.

puer (nominative singular) = subject → “the boy” (doing the action or being described)
puerum (accusative singular) = direct object → “the boy” (as something acted upon: “I see the boy”, “I call the boy”)

In puer fessus est, puer is the subject (the one who is tired and who runs), so Latin uses the nominative form puer, not the accusative puerum.

Why is scholam and not schola? Doesn’t the dictionary give schola?

The dictionary gives the nominative singular form: schola (school). But in this sentence, scholam is used because it is:

the object of the preposition ad,
and Latin uses the accusative case after ad when it means “to / toward”.

So:

schola = nominative (subject: “the school is big” → schola magna est),
scholam = accusative (object: “to the school” → ad scholam).

ad scholam = “to (the) school.”

Why does ad scholam use ad and not in? English says “to school,” but Latin sometimes uses in for “into.”

Latin has a subtle difference:

ad
- accusative = movement toward a place (to, up to).
  - ad scholam currit = he runs to the school (aiming for it).
in
- accusative = movement into / onto something.
  - in scholam currit = he runs into the school (across the threshold, entering).

In your sentence, the idea is simply “runs to school” (aim/direction), so ad scholam is the natural choice. If the emphasis were specifically on entering the building, in scholam would also be possible, but the nuance is slightly different.

What exactly does tamen mean, and how does it work in the sentence?

Tamen is an adverb meaning “however,” “nevertheless,” “nonetheless.” It signals a contrast with what comes before.

The structure is:

Puer fessus est = The boy is tired
tamen = nevertheless / however
ad scholam currit = he runs to school

So the logic is: > He is tired; nevertheless, he runs to school.

In Latin, tamen often appears near the beginning of the clause it belongs to, just like “however” or “nevertheless” in English.

Is the comma before tamen necessary or meaningful in Latin?

Classical Latin originally did not use punctuation the way we do today; our commas and periods are a later editorial convention.

In modern printed Latin:

A comma before tamen is common because it separates two contrasting clauses.
It roughly matches how we would punctuate in English: “The boy is tired, yet / nevertheless he runs to school.”

So the comma is not a grammatical requirement in the ancient sense, but it helps readability and reflects the logical pause in the sentence.

What tense and person is currit, and why that form?

Currit comes from the verb currere (to run).

currit = 3rd person singular, present indicative active
→ “he/she/it runs” or “he/she/it is running”.

In the sentence, the subject is puer (the boy), so currit means “he runs” or “he is running.” Latin often doesn’t include a separate pronoun (is, “he”) because the verb ending -it already shows 3rd person singular.

Why is the same subject “the boy” used for both est and currit without repeating puer?

Latin, like many languages, allows the same subject to apply to consecutive verbs in connected clauses, especially when it’s clearly the same person.

The structure is:

Puer fessus est = The boy is tired
tamen ad scholam currit = nevertheless (he) runs to school

The subject puer is understood to continue into the second clause. English often needs the pronoun “he” to be clear; Latin can just rely on the verb ending (currit, 3rd singular) and context.

Could the word order be different, like puer est fessus, tamen currit ad scholam? Would that change the meaning?

Yes, the word order could be rearranged in several ways without changing the basic meaning:

Puer est fessus, tamen ad scholam currit.
Fessus puer est, tamen currit ad scholam.
Puer fessus est, tamen currit ad scholam.
Puer fessus est, tamen currit ad scholam. (original)

All are understandable. Word order in Latin often affects emphasis more than basic meaning:

Putting fessus right after puer slightly ties them more tightly as a unit: “the boy, (being) tired, is…”
Putting est earlier (puer est fessus) can slightly emphasize the quality fessus at the end.

For a learner, your original order puer fessus est, tamen ad scholam currit is very standard and clear.

What is the grammatical role of fessus in puer fessus est? Is it an object?

Fessus is a predicate adjective, not an object.

In Latin (as in English), the verb “to be” (esse, here est) is a linking verb:

It does not take a direct object.
Instead, it links the subject with a complement that describes or renames it.

So:

puer = subject (nominative)
est = linking verb
fessus = predicate adjective, agreeing with the subject and describing it

This is parallel to English: “The boy is tired.” The word “tired” isn’t an object; it’s a description of the subject.

How is tamen different from sed? Could I say “Puer fessus est, sed ad scholam currit” instead?

Both tamen and sed express contrast, but they work differently:

sed = “but”
It’s a conjunction joining two clauses:
Puer fessus est, sed ad scholam currit.
→ The boy is tired, but he runs to school.
tamen = “however, nevertheless”
It’s an adverb, usually placed in the second clause and modifying the whole idea:
Puer fessus est, tamen ad scholam currit.
→ The boy is tired, yet / nevertheless he runs to school.

You can say sed instead of tamen. The nuance is:

sed emphasizes simple opposition (“but”),
tamen emphasizes concession (“even so / in spite of that”).