Bien qu'il soit fâché, ce chantage n'est aucunement justifié.

Questions & Answers about Bien qu'il soit fâché, ce chantage n'est aucunement justifié.

Why do we use bien que and the subjunctive soit here, instead of a cause phrase like à force de?
While a phrase like à force de explains the cause of a situation, bien que (although) introduces a concession or contrast. French grammar requires that bien que always be followed by the subjunctive mood. That is why we use the subjunctive soit instead of the indicative est, even though his anger is a stated fact.
I know the root chant relates to singing. How did chantage come to mean 'blackmail'?
The noun chantage comes from the old colloquial expression faire chanter quelqu'un, which literally means 'to make someone sing'. In French slang, forcing someone to sing meant pressuring them to confess secrets or hand over money, which naturally evolved into the modern meaning of blackmail.
How does aucunement work in this sentence? Could I just say pas justifié?
You could absolutely use pas, but aucunement is a stronger, more formal negative adverb meaning 'in no way' or 'not in the least'. It pairs with the negative particle ne (shortened here to n') and replaces pas completely, adding a lot of emphasis to the speaker's judgment.

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