Questions & Answers about او شهر را به ما نشان میدهد.
Why do we use be mâ for "us" instead of mâ râ?
In English, we often say "shows us", making "us" look like a direct object. But logically, he is showing the city to us. In Farsi, the independent pronoun mâ (we/us) acts as an indirect object here. We use the preposition be (to) before it, just like in "He shows the city to us." We would only use mâ râ if "us" was the direct object being acted upon.
Why does shahr (city) have râ after it?
râ marks the specific direct object of the sentence. Since "the city" is the exact thing being shown, and it is a specific city (not just "some city"), it gets the râ marker.
In English we say "shows us the city". Why is the order different in Farsi?
The standard Farsi word order places the specific direct object (shahr râ) before the indirect object (be mâ), and the verb always goes at the very end. So literally, the sentence flows as "He the city to us shows."
Why is the verb for "shows" split into two words, neshân midahad?
This is a compound verb, which is very common in Farsi! neshân means "sign" or "mark," and midahad means "he/she gives." Together, "giving a sign" translates to the English verb "to show."
Does u strictly mean "he"?