Questions & Answers about من سوال ندارم و تو جواب نداری.
Why doesn't the negative verb nadâram have the usual nemi- prefix?
The verb to have is special in Farsi. Unlike most verbs, it doesn't use the mi- prefix in the present tense (we say dâram, not midâram). Because there is no mi-, the negative is formed by simply adding na- directly to the stem, giving us nadâram (I do not have) and nadâri (you do not have).
Where is the word for 'a' or 'an' before سوال (question) and جواب (answer)?
In Farsi, you usually don't need a word for 'a' or 'an' when talking about general possession. Saying سوال ندارم translates perfectly to 'I don't have a question' in English, even though it literally translates as 'I don't have question.'
Do I have to say the pronouns من (I) and تو (you) here?
No, you could just say سوال ندارم و جواب نداری because the verb endings (-am and -i) already tell us exactly who the subject is. However, keeping من and تو in this sentence helps emphasize the contrast between the two people: I do not have this, and you do not have that.
I see the letter و (and) between the two phrases. How is it usually pronounced in a sentence like this?
While formally pronounced as 'va', in everyday spoken Farsi it usually becomes a quick 'o' sound attached to the word right before it. So you will often hear people say instead of .