Learn Hardcore Spanish (Spain): Mis zapatos están mojados; los dejo fuera para que se sequen. - My shoes are wet; I leave them outside so they can dry.

Use estar for temporary or changeable states and conditions. Being wet is a temporary state, so están mojados is correct. Using son mojados would sound like wetness is a defining characteristic of the shoes, which is odd.

Why mojados and not mojadas?

Adjectives agree in gender and number with the noun. Zapatos is masculine plural, so the adjective must be masculine plural: mojados. If it were botas (feminine plural), you’d say mojadas.

What does los refer to, and why is it placed before dejo?

Los is the direct object pronoun referring to zapatos. With a conjugated verb, object pronouns normally go before the verb: Los dejo. If you use the full noun instead of the pronoun, it’s Dejo los zapatos fuera (not Dejo los fuera). With an infinitive or gerund you can attach it: Voy a dejarlos fuera / Los voy a dejar fuera. With affirmative commands: Déjalos fuera; negative: No los dejes fuera.

Why fuera and not afuera?

In Spain, fuera is the usual adverb for outside. Afuera is far more common in Latin America and is understood in Spain but sounds Latin American. Use fuera de + noun to say outside of something specific: fuera de casa, fuera del armario. Without a following noun, just fuera is fine.

Do I need de after fuera here?

No. You only need de when you name what it’s outside of: fuera de la casa. In your sentence the location is general, so fuera is enough.

Is the semicolon necessary? Could I use a comma or a period?

A semicolon neatly links two closely related independent clauses. A period would also be fine: Mis zapatos están mojados. Los dejo fuera… A comma on its own would be too weak in careful writing because both sides are complete sentences.

Why para que instead of just para?

Use para que + verb when the subject of the main clause and the subordinate clause are different. Here, I leave them outside so that they dry (they are the subject of dry). If the subject is the same, use para + infinitive: Los dejo fuera para secarlos means I leave them outside to dry them (I do the drying), which is a different meaning.

Why is se sequen in the subjunctive?

Para que introduces a purpose or desired outcome, not a fact, so it triggers the subjunctive. The shoes aren’t dry yet; it’s the intended result. Hence se sequen (present subjunctive, third-person plural to match zapatos).

Why is it sequen with qu and not secen?

Spanish changes c to qu before e to keep the hard [k] sound. So the present subjunctive of secar is seque, seques, seque, sequemos, sequéis, sequen.

What is the role of se in se sequen?

It’s the reflexive/pronominal form of secarse meaning to dry off/by itself. Para que se sequen means so that they get dry. Without se (para que sequen) it would mean so that they dry something (transitive), which isn’t the intended meaning here.

Can I use the indicative se secan after para que?

No. After para que you need the subjunctive because it expresses purpose. Se secan would be indicative and would not be grammatical in that structure. If you changed the connector to something factual like porque, you’d use the indicative (porque se secan), but that changes the meaning to because.

Could I say Los pongo fuera or Los saco fuera?

Yes, but they’re not identical in nuance:

Los pongo fuera: I put/place them outside (focus on placement).
Los saco fuera: I take them out (from inside to outside). In Spain, many would just say Los saco (adding fuera can feel redundant, though it’s common in speech).
Los dejo fuera: I leave them outside (emphasizes leaving them there for a while), which fits best with drying.

Is mis zapatos necessary? Could I say Los zapatos están mojados?

Both are possible. Mis zapatos explicitly marks ownership. Los zapatos están mojados works if it’s clear from context which shoes you mean. A very natural Spanish way to express this is also Se me mojaron los zapatos (my shoes got wet).

Can I front the purpose clause?

Yes: Para que se sequen, los dejo fuera. Moving the purpose clause to the front is fine and common in Spanish.

Is this fuera the same word as the past subjunctive of ser/ir?

They’re homographs but different words. Here fuera is an adverb meaning outside. The verb form fuera (imperfect subjunctive of ser/ir) doesn’t appear in this sentence and there’s no ambiguity from context.

What’s the difference between mojado, húmedo, and empapado?

Mojado: wet.
Húmedo: damp, slightly wet.
Empapado: soaked, drenched.