Leniwy pies śpi w łazience, bo tam pachnie mydłem.

The lazy dog sleeps in the bathroom because it smells of soap there.

Breakdown of Leniwy pies śpi w łazience, bo tam pachnie mydłem.

• pies: the dog
• w: in
• bo: because
• tam: there
• leniwy: lazy
• pachnieć: to smell
• łazienka: the bathroom
• spać: to sleep
• mydło: the soap

Questions & Answers about Leniwy pies śpi w łazience, bo tam pachnie mydłem.

What does leniwy mean and why does it end with -y?

leniwy means lazy. In Polish, adjectives agree with the noun they describe in gender, number and case. Here pies (dog) is masculine, singular, and in the nominative case (it’s the subject), so the adjective takes the masculine singular nominative ending -y.

Why is there no the or a before leniwy pies?

Polish does not use articles like the or a. Context tells you whether you mean a lazy dog or the lazy dog—you simply say leniwy pies.

What is śpi, and why not śpią or śpimy?

śpi is the third person singular present form of spać (“to sleep”). It means he/she/it sleeps.

• śpią would be third person plural (“they sleep”),
• śpimy is first person plural (“we sleep”).

Why is it w łazience and not na łazience or w łazienka?

1) w means in (inside), while na means on (on top of). A dog sleeps inside the bathroom, so we use w.
2) When w denotes a static location, it requires the locative case. Łazienka (bathroom) in the locative singular becomes łazience.

What does bo mean, and how is it different from ponieważ?

bo means because and is common in spoken or informal Polish.
ponieważ also means because but is more formal and can start a sentence.
Example:

• Informal: Leniwy pies śpi w łazience, bo tam pachnie mydłem.
• Formal: Ponieważ tam pachnie mydłem, leniwy pies śpi w łazience.

What role does tam play here? Can it be left out?

tam means there, pointing specifically to the bathroom as the place with the soap smell. You can omit it (bo pachnie mydłem), but then you lose the explicit reference to where it smells.

What does pachnie mydłem literally mean?

pachnie comes from pachnieć, an intransitive verb meaning to emit a smell (to smell of something).
mydłem is the instrumental form of mydło (“soap”).
Together, pachnie mydłem = smells of soap.

Why is mydłem in the instrumental case rather than the accusative?

Verbs of perception like pachnieć (“to smell of”), śmierdzieć (“to stink”), or czuć (“to feel/sense”) require the instrumental for the thing perceived. Hence mydło → mydłem.

Could you start with the because clause and still use bo?

It’s possible but more colloquial and sometimes considered childlike to start a sentence with bo. In formal writing you’d use ponieważ up front. So:

• Informal: “Bo tam pachnie mydłem, leniwy pies śpi w łazience.” (okay in speech)
• Formal: “Ponieważ tam pachnie mydłem, leniwy pies śpi w łazience.”