Mater invidam querelam improbat et filiis dicit discordiam amicitiam laedere.

Questions & Answers about Mater invidam querelam improbat et filiis dicit discordiam amicitiam laedere.

Why is mater the form used here, and what case is it?

Mater is nominative singular, because it is the subject of both verbs:

  • improbat = disapproves
  • dicit = says / tells

So mater is the one doing both actions.

It is also worth noticing that mater is a third-declension noun:

  • mater, matris = mother

Even though many Latin nominative singular subjects end in -a or -us, third-declension nouns often do not.

Why are invidam querelam both in the accusative?

Because querelam is the direct object of improbat.

  • improbat = she disapproves (of)
  • What does she disapprove of? invidam querelam

So querelam is accusative singular.

The adjective invidam must agree with querelam in:

  • gender: feminine
  • number: singular
  • case: accusative

That is why both words end in -am.

What does invidam mean here?

Invidam comes from invidus, -a, -um. Its sense can vary a bit depending on context, with meanings like:

  • envious
  • spiteful
  • resentful
  • malicious

With querela (complaint), the idea is something like a spiteful or resentful complaint.

So the Latin is not just saying a complaint, but a complaint with a negative emotional tone.

Why is filiis dative, and why is there no preposition meaning to?

Filiis is dative plural, from filius, -i.

It is dative because dicere can take:

  • a person told in the dative
  • and then the thing said

So:

  • filiis dicit = she says to her sons / she tells her sons

Latin often does not need a separate word for to when the dative case already shows that meaning.

Why does the sentence use dicit discordiam amicitiam laedere instead of a clause with that?

This is a very common Latin construction called an indirect statement.

In English, we often say:

  • She tells her sons that discord harms friendship.

In Latin, instead of using a word like that, a verb of saying often introduces:

  • an accusative subject
  • plus an infinitive

So:

  • discordiam ... laedere

means literally something like:

  • discord to harm friendship

but in normal English it becomes:

  • that discord harms friendship
Why are discordiam and amicitiam both accusative? How can they both be accusative if one is the subject?

That is one of the biggest surprises for English speakers.

Inside an indirect statement, the subject of the infinitive goes into the accusative. So:

  • discordiam = the subject of laedere
  • amicitiam = the object of laedere

So the structure is:

  • discordiam = discord
  • amicitiam = friendship
  • laedere = to harm

In other words:

  • discordiam amicitiam laedere = that discord harms friendship

Even though both nouns are accusative, they do different jobs.

How do I know discordiam is the subject of laedere and not amicitiam?

There are two main clues.

1. Word order Latin often places the subject accusative of an indirect statement before the object, so:

  • discordiam amicitiam laedere

naturally suggests:

  • discord harms friendship

2. Meaning Semantically, discord harms friendship makes much better sense than friendship harms discord.

So grammar and sense point in the same direction.

Why is laedere an infinitive?

Because after dicit in an indirect statement, Latin normally uses an infinitive, not a finite verb.

So instead of saying something like:

  • dicit quod discordia amicitiam laedit

Classical Latin much more characteristically says:

  • dicit discordiam amicitiam laedere

Here:

  • laedere = to harm

But in translation, English uses a normal finite verb:

  • that discord harms friendship
What is the basic dictionary form of laedere, and what does it mean?

The dictionary form is laedo, laedere, laesi, laesum.

Its core meanings include:

  • to injure
  • to hurt
  • to damage
  • to harm

In this sentence, harm is the most natural translation:

  • discordiam amicitiam laedere = that discord harms friendship
Is the word order important here, or could Latin rearrange it?

Latin word order is much more flexible than English word order, because the endings show the grammatical relationships.

This sentence is perfectly natural as written:

  • Mater invidam querelam improbat et filiis dicit discordiam amicitiam laedere.

But Latin could rearrange parts for emphasis.

For example, putting discordiam early helps set up the important idea of discord. Putting laedere at the end is also very normal in Latin, since verbs often come late, especially infinitives in indirect statement.

So the order is not random, but it is also not as rigid as English.

Is querela a common word for complaint?

Yes. Querela, -ae is a first-declension noun meaning:

  • complaint
  • lament
  • grievance

In this sentence, it is the thing the mother disapproves of:

  • invidam querelam improbat = she disapproves of the spiteful complaint

So it is a straightforward noun here, not an unusual idiom.

What is the overall grammatical structure of the sentence?

A useful breakdown is:

  • Mater = subject
  • invidam querelam = direct object of improbat
  • improbat = first main verb
  • et = and
  • filiis = dative, to her sons
  • dicit = second main verb
  • discordiam amicitiam laedere = indirect statement, the content of what she says

So the sentence has:

  1. one main statement: The mother disapproves of the spiteful complaint
  2. a second main statement joined by et: and tells her sons
  3. then the content of what she tells them: that discord harms friendship
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