Hospes intrare vult, sed ianua clausa est.

Questions & Answers about Hospes intrare vult, sed ianua clausa est.

Why is hospes in this form?

Hospes is the nominative singular form, so it is the subject of vult.

A learner may notice that hospes can mean several related things depending on context, such as:

  • guest
  • host
  • stranger
  • foreigner

In this sentence, the context makes it clear that hospes is the person who wants to enter.


Why is there no word for the or a before hospes or ianua?

Latin normally does not use articles like English the and a/an.

So:

  • hospes can mean a guest, the guest, a stranger, or the stranger
  • ianua can mean a door or the door

You decide which English article to use from the context.


Why is intrare used instead of something meaning to enter with a separate word for to?

Because intrare is an infinitive, and the Latin infinitive often corresponds to English to + verb.

So:

  • intrare = to enter

After verbs like vult (wants), Latin commonly uses the infinitive directly:

  • Hospes intrare vult = The guest wants to enter

English uses to enter; Latin uses the infinitive intrare.


Why is vult singular?

Because its subject, hospes, is singular.

  • hospes = one guest / one stranger
  • vult = he/she wants or wants

This is the 3rd person singular present form of velle (to want).

A few useful forms are:

  • volo = I want
  • vis = you want
  • vult = he/she/it wants
  • volumus = we want
  • vultis = you all want
  • volunt = they want

Why is it ianua, not ianuam?

Because ianua is the subject of est, not the direct object of another verb.

In the second clause:

  • ianua clausa est

the structure is basically:

  • the door
    • closed
      • is

So ianua must be in the nominative singular.

If it were a direct object, then you might expect the accusative ianuam, but that is not what is happening here.


Why does clausa end in -a?

Because clausa agrees with ianua.

  • ianua is feminine singular nominative
  • so the adjective/participle describing it must also be feminine singular nominative

That is why we get:

  • ianua clausa est = the door is closed

Compare the agreement:

  • ianua clausa est = the door is closed
  • ostium clausum est = the door/opening is closed

The ending changes to match the noun.


Is clausa est just a normal adjective with is, or is it a passive verb form?

It is historically a perfect passive participle plus est, but in a sentence like this it is often best understood as describing a state:

  • clausa est = is closed

More literally, it comes from the verb claudere (to shut, close):

  • clausa = having been closed
  • est = is

Together, this can mean either:

  • has been closed in a more verbal sense, or
  • is closed in a more descriptive sense

Here, English naturally says the door is closed.


Why is the word order Hospes intrare vult, not something more like English word order?

Latin word order is more flexible than English word order because Latin uses endings to show grammatical roles.

So this sentence could be rearranged without changing the basic meaning, for example:

  • Hospes intrare vult
  • Intrare hospes vult
  • Vult hospes intrare

These may differ slightly in emphasis, but the grammar is still clear because:

  • hospes is nominative
  • intrare is an infinitive
  • vult is the main finite verb

The given order is perfectly natural and straightforward.


What exactly does sed do here?

Sed means but.

It connects the two clauses and shows a contrast:

  • Hospes intrare vult = the guest wants to enter
  • sed ianua clausa est = but the door is closed

So sed signals that the second idea prevents or opposes the first.


Could hospes mean host here instead of guest?

In isolation, yes: hospes can mean either guest or host, and sometimes stranger.

But in this sentence, the surrounding idea usually pushes the reader toward guest or visitor:

  • someone wants to enter
  • but the door is closed

That sounds more like a person outside trying to come in than a host already inside.

So context, not the form itself, tells you which English word is best.


Why doesn’t Latin need a separate subject pronoun like he in he wants?

Because the ending of the verb already tells you the person and number.

  • vult already means he/she/it wants

So Latin does not need to say is vult or some other explicit pronoun unless it wants extra emphasis.

That is very common in Latin:

  • vult = he/she wants
  • est = he/she/it is

Latin often leaves pronouns out unless they are needed for contrast or clarity.

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