Multi iuvenes volunt a rhetore Romano laudari, si bene responderint.

Questions & Answers about Multi iuvenes volunt a rhetore Romano laudari, si bene responderint.

Why is multi used here, and what does it agree with?

Multi means many, and it agrees with iuvenes.

  • iuvenes = masculine plural
  • so multi must also be masculine plural nominative

That is why Latin has multi iuvenes, not multae iuvenes or multa iuvenes.

Because multi iuvenes is the subject of volunt, both words are in the nominative.

What form is iuvenes?

Iuvenes is nominative plural of iuvenis, meaning young man or young person.

In this sentence it is the subject of volunt:

  • Multi iuvenes volunt = Many young men want

A learner may notice that iuvenis is a 3rd-declension noun, so its plural nominative is iuvenes.

Why is volunt followed by laudari?

Latin often uses volo + infinitive to express want to ...

So:

  • volunt laudari = they want to be praised

This works much like English want + infinitive, except Latin can use either an active or passive infinitive depending on the meaning:

  • laudare = to praise
  • laudari = to be praised

Since the young men want praise for themselves, the passive infinitive is the one needed.

Why is laudari passive instead of active?

Because the meaning is to be praised, not to praise.

Compare:

  • laudare = to praise
  • laudari = to be praised

The young men are the ones receiving the action, not doing it. So Latin uses the present passive infinitive laudari.

Who is the subject of laudari?

The subject of laudari is understood to be the same people as the subject of volunt: multi iuvenes.

So the sense is:

  • Many young men want [themselves] to be praised

Latin does not need to repeat the subject here. English also often leaves it unspoken:

  • They want to be praised

You do not need a separate word for themselves in this sentence.

Why do we get a rhetore Romano?

Because laudari is passive, Latin uses a/ab + ablative to show the personal agent, the person who performs the action.

So:

  • a rhetore Romano = by a Roman rhetor

This is the standard passive-agent construction in Latin.

Compare:

  • active: rhetor Romanus iuvenes laudat = the Roman rhetor praises the young men
  • passive: iuvenes a rhetore Romano laudantur = the young men are praised by the Roman rhetor
Why is it rhetore Romano and not rhetor Romanus?

Because after a meaning by with a passive verb, the noun must be in the ablative.

So:

  • dictionary form: rhetor Romanus
  • after a: a rhetore Romano

Both the noun and its adjective change case together:

  • rhetorrhetore
  • RomanusRomano

This agreement is exactly what you would expect in Latin.

What exactly is rhetor?

Rhetor is a Greek-derived Latin noun meaning rhetorician, teacher of rhetoric, or sometimes simply an expert/public teacher of speaking.

In a Roman educational context, a rhetor would often be a teacher who trains students in formal speaking and argument.

Its forms belong to the 3rd declension, which is why the ablative singular is rhetore.

What is the role of Romano?

Romano is an adjective meaning Roman, and it modifies rhetore.

Because rhetore is:

  • masculine
  • singular
  • ablative

the adjective must match it:

  • Romano

So a rhetore Romano is one unit: by a Roman rhetor.

Why is bene used instead of an adjective?

Because bene is an adverb, and it modifies the verb responderint.

  • bene = well
  • bonus, -a, -um = good

In English too, we say:

  • they answered well not
  • they answered good in standard grammar

So Latin uses the adverb bene to describe how they answer.

What form is responderint?

Responderint is 3rd person plural, from respondere.

In this sentence, after si, it is most naturally understood as a future perfect indicative form:

  • si bene responderint = if they answer / if they have answered well

A useful point for learners: in Latin, an if-clause referring to the future often uses the future perfect where English simply uses the present:

  • Latin: si responderint
  • English: if they answer

So the Latin form may look more complicated than the English translation suggests.

Why does Latin use responderint here instead of a simple present like respondent?

Latin often prefers the future-perfect form in a future-looking si clause when one action is understood as completed before another.

Here the idea is roughly:

  • first, they answer well
  • then, they are praised

So si bene responderint suggests if they have answered well / if they answer well.

English usually does not make this distinction so explicitly in the if clause, but Latin often does.

Does responderint mean subjunctive here?

A learner may wonder about that because responderint can look like a subjunctive form. But in this sentence, after si, the normal reading is future perfect indicative, not subjunctive.

So it is part of an ordinary condition, not a purpose clause or fear clause or anything like that.

In other words, this is basically:

  • if they answer well

not a special subjunctive use.

Why is the word order so different from English?

Latin word order is much freer than English word order because Latin shows grammatical relationships through endings, not mainly through position.

So this sentence can place words for emphasis or style:

  • Multi iuvenes first: introduces the people being talked about
  • volunt early: gives the main action
  • laudari later: completes what they want
  • si bene responderint at the end: adds the condition

English depends more heavily on word order, but Latin can move parts around while keeping the meaning clear through case endings and verb forms.

Could the sentence have been written in a different order and still mean the same thing?

Yes, within limits.

For example, Latin could rearrange parts such as:

  • Multi iuvenes, si bene responderint, a rhetore Romano laudari volunt.

That would still mean essentially the same thing.

However, the original order is perfectly natural. Latin authors often place an infinitive like laudari toward the end of its clause, and the conditional clause can come after it.

Why is there no accusative subject before laudari?

Because with volo + infinitive, if the subject of the infinitive is the same as the subject of the main verb, Latin usually leaves it understood.

So:

  • Multi iuvenes volunt laudari = Many young men want to be praised

If the subject of the infinitive were different, Latin would often make that explicit. But here the same people both want and are to be praised, so no separate accusative subject is needed.

Is si bene responderint attached to volunt or to laudari?

In sense, it modifies the whole idea, but most directly it gives the condition under which the praise would happen.

So the logic is:

  • many young men want to be praised
  • and that praise is expected if they answer well

In practice, you can understand it as qualifying the desired praise: they want to be praised if they answer well.

That is a very natural way for Latin to express the condition here.

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